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05-05-2008, 04:53 AM | #121 | ||||
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This means that, in general (at least to some), demons were not of this world and that is why magicians and witches had to "bind" them for them to be involved in our activities. Or they (demons) could choose to posess people and use them. Or they could reincarnate. Or they could appear to people in visions or as apparitions. Those are the mechanisms through which demons could be involved in mankinds activities on earth. You can nitpick and talk about the aer if you like but my statement about the order of occupation is still correct: Spiritual beings (gods, demons etc) occupied the upper, incorruptible layers and mankind occupied the lower, corruptible layers (earth). Quote:
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05-05-2008, 06:19 AM | #122 | ||
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Jiri |
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05-05-2008, 06:46 AM | #123 | |||||
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05-05-2008, 07:10 AM | #124 | |
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Now, of course, you can break of a dialogue with anyone at any time. But it's not a good form, Ted, doing that after you have casually accused someone of witholding relevant information from you and carelessly mishandled the views they hold. Jiri |
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05-05-2008, 07:21 AM | #125 | |
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Sorry but I don't want to take the time to try and decipher your views further. Especially when the thread has already gone so far off topic, though I admit I contributed with the post you responded to. It now appears to be getting back on topic, and I would like for that to remain the case. ted |
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05-05-2008, 09:30 AM | #126 | |||
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Plus, you ignore the following: 1. Plato's depiction of the terrestrial/ heavenly dichotomy, which we find in Symposium and Timaeus is vague and does not allow for the rigid separation that you are advocating. It is Aristotle who later formalized this dualism in works like De Caelo. In other words, you are erecting fences and drawing boundaries where Plato erected none. 2. Plato envisioned intermediary beings between man and God see Pseudo platonic writing of Axiochus among others. The platonic heaven was not purely ethereal and was occupied by non-ethereal, even material beings. This is clear in the writings of Origen (De Principiis, Contra Celsum), Ascension of Isaiah and several other documents that I dont feel bothered enough to look up. Quote:
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Note that you have shifted the argument from denying that archontes referred to demons, to grudgingly admitting that Satan was usually accused of causing misfortunes, including killing people. By the way, it's rather silly to deny that archontes refers to demons. Most scholars agree that they do refer to demons as mythicists argue. The point of disagreement is that whereas these scholars argue that these demons were behind the actions of their human agents, mythicists think they directly killed Jesus in another realm. Get that point clearly. |
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05-05-2008, 10:56 AM | #127 | |
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How do you explain Paul's sudden jump from talking about human wisdom to demons lack of wisdom? How do you explain Paul's comment that had the archons understood who Jesus was they wouldn't have killed him? Do you think Paul was saying that a more enlightened demon would not have killed Jesus? Do you think these demons are the "sinners" in Hebrews that its writer says were "hostile" toward Jesus? These are the points I made once before to you, and if I recall correctly you declined to reply. Since you appear well-informed I am curious as to what your thoughts are on this. ted |
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05-05-2008, 12:27 PM | #128 | |
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The gospels fit squarely into the Graeco-Roman biographical tradition. The espistles aren't narratives at all, but commmentaries. So, you are begging the question by discerning "layers" and developments that are not before us, but are assumed in order to reach the conclusion you want. And that is the problem of the silences the OP points out. |
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05-05-2008, 12:31 PM | #129 | ||
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I know I"m being ask that and the answer is easy. Historical fiction is obviously novelesque and includes perspectives not available to historicians (like what's going on in a person's thoughts). And so usually in the first page you know it is historical fiction and you know the events as portrayed did not happen as portrayed. Now historical fiction may include real events (like a war), but the narrative itself is fictional, and doesn't purport to be otherwise. If it did otherwise, it wouldn't be historical fiction. It would be history (and we could tell that by the first page also). |
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05-05-2008, 12:36 PM | #130 | |||
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So one epistomological problem at a time. |
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