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Old 12-28-2011, 09:24 PM   #51
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Originally Posted by Maklelan View Post
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So far you have been 100% debunked since you cannot find any reference to Paul, the Pauline writings and the Pauline churches in the writings attributed to Justin Martyr.
So far you've shown that you know just less than jack about textual criticism. Go get an education, and then come talk to me about who's quoting who and who isn't.
Well, all I know is that I don't have to be an EXPERT to present or examine EVIDENCE from antiquity. Even in court trial ordinary people REJECT the opinion of so-called experts.

All I know is that one NEEDS evidence or datato develop a theory.

I will present the written statements from antiquity and reject your unsubstantiated assumptions.

I am really not interested in opinion. I only deal with Sources of antiquity. Just go find a source of for your claims because your opinion or supposed expertise don't mean JACK. Sources, Sources, Sources.......that is all.

Examine "First Apology" attributed to Justin Martyr.
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..For from Jerusalem there went out into the world, men, twelve in number, and these illiterate, of no ability in speaking...... proclaimed to every race of men that they were sent by Christ to teach to all the word of God...
I have an apologetic source that claim it was 12 illiterate men that preached the Gospel to every race of men in the world, NOT Paul.

The Pauline writings, the Pauline Churches and Paul was unknown up to the mid 2nd century based on Justin.

Next, I will show you another apologetic source, Aristides "Apology". Aristides will destroy Paul as a LIAR.
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Old 12-28-2011, 09:40 PM   #52
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Well, all I know is that I don't have to be an EXPERT to present or examine EVIDENCE from antiquity. Even in court trial ordinary people REJECT the opinion of so-called experts.
The academy is not a court trial, and you're of course free to do all the presenting and examining you wish, but when you've been shown to misunderstand the evidence, no amount of complaining about elitism can make you suddenly right.

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All I know is that one NEEDS evidence or datato develop a theory.

I will present the written statements from antiquity and reject your unsubstantiated assumptions.
You cannot produce statements from antiquity to support your theses. They don't exist. You can only misrepresent and misunderstand those statements because of the presuppositional and dogmatic interpretive frameworks you've so naively nailed into place. Additionally, I've not been producing assumptions. I've been producing informed and objective analysis of the actual data. You've not been able to respond to it. The fact that you're not an expert hardly means I'm wrong.

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I am really not interested in opinion. I only deal with Sources of antiquity.
That's a lie. You've shown you're deeply, deeply interested in all the secondary sources you can find to back of your silly theories, and that you don't really read the sources or know much about them.

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Just go find a source of for your claims because your opinion or supposed expertise don't mean JACK. Sources, Sources, Sources.......that is all.
Between the two of us I'm the only one who has actually shown a competent grasp of the sources.

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Examine "First Apology" attributed to Justin Martyr.
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..For from Jerusalem there went out into the world, men, twelve in number, and these illiterate, of no ability in speaking...... proclaimed to every race of men that they were sent by Christ to teach to all the word of God...
I have an apologetic source that claim it was 12 illiterate men that preached the Gospel to every race of men in the world, NOT Paul.
Where did he say "not Paul"? Haven't we already covered this silly notion that if Martyr didn't say it, it didn't happen?

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The Pauline writings, the Pauline Churches and Paul was unknown up to the mid 2nd century based on Justin.
This is an argument from silence that utterly ignores the internal evidence for a first century provenance and the standards by which texts are dated. Texts do not date to the first explicit reference to them in other texts.

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Next, I will show you another apologetic source, Aristides "Apology". Aristides will destroy Paul as a LIAR.
You've still got a lot of issues to address before you move on to another misguided attempt to destroy centuries of scholarship.
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Old 12-28-2011, 10:21 PM   #53
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Paul and Martyr are not quoting LXX Deuteronomy. They are either quoting the same divergent and non-extent Greek translation, or Martyr is quoting Paul, who has his own early and divergent version underlying his quote.
...or for theological reasons, both decided that having deo curse his son didn't really work very well.

...or a later editor assimilated one text to the other. Galatians has been extensively worked over. \

<shrug> Is the situation similar for Trypho/Gal quote in Gal 3:10 of Deut? "Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things that are written in the book of the law to do them". What word for "curse" did Paul/Justin use there?
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Old 12-28-2011, 10:43 PM   #54
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...or for theological reasons, both decided that having deo curse his son didn't really work very well.
And both altered the text, including the use of a different verb, in the exact same way? That doesn't make near as much sense as dependency.

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...or a later editor assimilated one text to the other. Galatians has been extensively worked over.
We're compounding assumptions, now. The fewer people we have to inject into the process the more parsimonious. There's also no evidence that these texts were harmonized after the fact. What about the numerous other OT quotations that are close matches, but not identical? Why didn't the editor harmonize those?

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<shrug> Is the situation similar for Trypho/Gal quote in Gal 3:10 of Deut? "Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things that are written in the book of the law to do them". What word for "curse" did Paul/Justin use there?
LXX Deut 27:26: ἐπικατάρατος πᾶς ἄνθρωπος ὃς οὐκ ἐμμενεῖ ἐν πᾶσιν τοῖς λόγοις τοῦ νόμου τούτου τοῦ ποιῆσαι αὐτούς.

Gal 3:10: Ἐπικατάρατος πᾶς ὃς οὐκ ἐμμένει ἐν πᾶσιν τοῖς γεγραμμένοις ἐν τῷ βιβλίῳ τοῦ νόμου τοῦ ποιῆσαι αὐτά

Martyr, Dialogue 95: Ἐπικατάρατος γὰρ εῖρηται πᾶς ὃς οὐκ ἐμμένει ἐν πᾶσιν τοῖς γεγραμμένοις ἐν τῷ βιβλίῳ τοῦ νόμου τοῦ ποιῆσαι αὐτά

Martyr adds γὰρ εῖρηται, but otherwise his version is identical to Paul's over against LXX Deut 27:26 in excluding ἄνθρωπος, in using "writings" instead of "words," in the shorter form τοῦ, and in the neuter plural accusative αὐτά rather than the masculine plural accusative αὐτούς. Here dependency is quite unreasonable to deny.
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Old 12-28-2011, 11:00 PM   #55
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And both altered the text, including the use of a different verb, in the exact same way? That doesn't make near as much sense as dependency.
It's actually simpler this way, since they merely have to drop two words. You're actually wrestling with the problem that creeps in with multiple use of the same quote in different texts -- when everyone cites it a little differently, sometimes differences are going to coincidentally resemble each other.

I agree that dependency is also suggested here.

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We're compounding assumptions, now. The fewer people we have to inject into the process the more parsimonious. There's also no evidence that these texts were harmonized after the fact. What about the numerous other OT quotations that are close matches, but not identical? Why didn't the editor harmonize those?
No, we're not compounding "assumptions" because we know that Galatians has been heavily worked over by editors who made all sorts of changes and insertions and deletions. So we know from other sources that other hands are busy in Galatians.

Note that I did not say "harmonized" because oftimes things become similar because scribes hear the same versions and internalize them.

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Martyr adds γὰρ εῖρηται, but otherwise his version is identical to Paul's over against LXX Deut 27:26 in excluding ἄνθρωπος, in using "writings" instead of "words," in the shorter form τοῦ, and in the neuter plural accusative αὐτά rather than the masculine plural accusative αὐτούς. Here dependency is quite unreasonable to deny.
Strange, isn't it?

Vorkosigan
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Old 12-28-2011, 11:04 PM   #56
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But was the passage found in the Marcionite version of Galatians? I don't know but the Dialogues of Adamantius seem to imply there were no references to the Old Testament in the letters. Also here is a list of all references to Galatians 3:10 before Nicaea (from biblindex.fr):

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Galatians 3, 10 Iustinus martyr Dialogus cum Tryphone ARCHAMBAULT G., Justin, Dialogue avec Tryphon, 2 t. (Textes et documents pour l'étude historique du christianisme), Paris 1909. 95 § 1 (p.102, l.12) BP1

Gal 3.10 Didascalia apostolorum CONNOLLY R.H., Didascalia apostolorum..., Oxford 1929. 26 (p.238, l.26 - < )) BP2

Gal 3.10 Tertullianus Aduersus Marcionem KROYMANN Aem., CCL 1 (1954), 441-726. 5 3 § 9 (p.670, l.12) BP1

Gal 3.10 Hippolytus Romanus (?) Refutatio omnium haeresium WENDLAND P., GCS 26 (1916). 6 35 § 6 (p.165, l.12 - *) BP2
The last reference is not an explicit citation. It is the faintest of references (I can't even see it). So all we are down to a handful of references. The reference in Tertullian does not make clear the Marcionites had the passage:

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Since, then, there equally are found the curse in the law and the blessing in faith, you have both conditions set forth by the Creator: "Behold," says He, "I have set before you a blessing and a curse." You cannot establish a diversity of authors because there happens to be one of things; for the diversity is itself proposed by one and the same author. Why, however, "Christ was made a curse for us," is declared by the apostle himself in a way which quite helps our side, as being the result of the Creator's appointment. But yet it by no means follows, because the Creator said of old, "Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree," that Christ belonged to another god, and on that account was accursed even then in the law. And how, indeed, could the Creator have cursed by anticipation one whom He knew not of? Why, however, may it not be more suitable for the Creator to have delivered His own Son to His own curse, than to have submitted Him to the malediction of that god of yours,----in behalf, too, of man, who is an alien to him? Now, if this appointment of the Creator respecting His Son appears to you to be a cruel one, it is equally so in the case of your own god; if, on the contrary, it be in accordance with reason in your god, it is equally so----nay, much more so----in mine. For it would be more credible that that God had provided blessing for man, through the curse of Christ, who formerly set both a blessing and a curse before man, than that he had done so, who, according to you, never at any time pronounced either.
I don't know for certain but it is possible that the passage was not in the Marcionite recension. Curious that Clement of Alexandria and Origen don't mention it.
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Old 12-28-2011, 11:30 PM   #57
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It's actually simpler this way, since they merely have to drop two words.
Did you not notice that the verb in Paul and Martyr is completely different from that of the Septuagint? It's not nearly as simple as just dropping two words.

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You're actually wrestling with the problem that creeps in with multiple use of the same quote in different texts -- when everyone cites it a little differently, sometimes differences are going to coincidentally resemble each other.
But Paul and Martyr don't cite it "a little differently." They cite it identically.

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No, we're not compounding "assumptions" because we know that Galatians has been heavily worked over by editors who made all sorts of changes and insertions and deletions. So we know from other sources that other hands are busy in Galatians.
We know this? Can you cite a publication that discusses this work and dates it to after Martyr?

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Note that I did not say "harmonized" because oftimes things become similar because scribes hear the same versions and internalize them.
Now you're making assumptions about unintentional anaphora? This isn't how textual criticism works.

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Strange, isn't it?

Vorkosigan
No, actually I deal with this every day. It's my job.
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Old 12-28-2011, 11:30 PM   #58
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Jerome mentions the Samaritan reading in Commentary Galatians 3:10:

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Cursed be he who does not uphold all the words of this law by doing them.
compare:

Quote:
Cursed is every one that continues not in all things that are written in the book of the law to do them
Justin was from Nablus. It is possible they are both citing the Samaritikon, a Samaritan Targum or an unknown sectarian composition. The Mimar Marqe makes clear that Marqe knew a Greek text of the Pentateuch.
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Old 12-28-2011, 11:38 PM   #59
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On Jerome's citation of the Samaritan text (which appears different than the existing SP):

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The extant Samaritan manuscripts of Deut. 27: 26, however, only read kol once — in the second place. Did Jerome's Samaritan text really read it in both places, or did he, in his haste, fail to notice that it did not agree exactly with the Septuagint and Paul?
http://books.google.com/books?id=QnG...A10%22&f=false
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Old 12-28-2011, 11:55 PM   #60
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Jerome's testimony on the Samaritan text:

Subauditur, "ea quae locutus est Dominus." Superfluum ergo est quod in Samaritanorum et nostro volumine est, " Transeamus in campum.

Apparently Cyril of Alexandria said that the Samaritan text supplies words wanting in the Hebrew (= Masoretic):

http://books.google.com/books?id=KVc...us.%22&f=false
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