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Old 04-15-2008, 12:30 PM   #21
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. . .. If we judge other ancient texts by that same basis, what texts from antiquity could we trust?

Christmyth
It depends on how far you are going to trust them. You can read the Iliad and the Bible as literature of their time, of interest in understanding human history. But if you try to read the Iliad for military strategy, or if you think you might be required to sacrifice your virgin daughter to win the war in the Middle East, you probably should not trust that text.

Similarly, if you find a supposedly ancient text that claims that the Macedonians were not Greek (or were definitely Greek), or were maybe proto-Bulgarian, you might consider the possibility that a modern day nationalist on one side of the Macedonian question has altered that text.
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Old 04-15-2008, 01:36 PM   #22
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[The Bible is different, though. Sexist policies are instituted using forged epistles as justification.
Interesting here is that the translation used by the Baptists is wrong to say that "Adam was first formed, then Eve," since neither Adam nor Eve where ever formed to 'be'. They merely existed in the imagination of man (MAN) and still exist today in the same imagination of man who was first called Adam after this imaginative quality created the additional ego identitiy wherein they consciously knew that they were naked.

Here is the passage used from their translation:
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1 Timothy 2:12 says that a woman should not “usurp authority over a man.” This is the scripture you’ve used to deny this woman a place in the lecture halls of the seminary. But let’s go to the complete passage:

“Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection. But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence. For Adam was first formed, then Eve.


(Bold is added by me).

Created is the right word here, never to be formed and find existence in being, and therefore remaining an illusion that may be fun for fantasies but will never be real.

Sure, good to know thet difference between good and bad [such as when making a living] and may even be fun to crucify after it has served its purpose.
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Old 04-15-2008, 01:49 PM   #23
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Is the Iliad really a great document to point to? Isn't it a poem full of Greek mythology?
It's also full of real history.
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Old 04-15-2008, 01:53 PM   #24
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The Iliad is a mythological retelling from the viewpoint of Classical Greeks, of exploits of Mycenean Greeks. The events are believed to be real history, but told from a perspective of many centuries later.
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Old 04-15-2008, 07:53 PM   #25
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Your position, if I understand it correctly, is that the statement:

"The Bible (the NT, specifically) has not come down to us with <some specific degree of> reliability"

Implies that:

"No ancient text has come down to us with <some specific degree of> reliability".
Agreed; purely because the NT is the best preserved of ancient literary texts. The same argument would work with the major Greek Fathers, and for the same reason; they're the next best preserved.
I'm arguing less that the NT is or isn't the "best" preserved (which is a qualitative judgement) and more that we:

A) Cannot assign a quantitative measure to the degree of preservation (e.g. 99.5% or what have you) because we don't have the originals to compare to, and

B) Must acknowledge that while there are many minor/irrelevant discrepancies in the extant mss, there are some that are significant enough to prevent us from saying categorically "The NT is reliable."

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Which in turn implies that:

"Ancient texts would therefore be useless."
Ah, agreed, but some steps have been omitted which might mislead some people reading.

The argument to which I am responding is that the NT is useless as a source, because of the question of transmission. To whatever degree the NT is 'useless', the same would therefore apply to a greater degree to everything else.

I don't have a clear idea of in what ways the transmission issue is to render the NT useless, so leave it as vague as I found it.
You are responding to an argument that I'm not making. I'm not saying that the NT is useless as a source. I'm saying that we need to question the reliability of the NT because there are known discrepancies between the extant mss. We cannot just assume the reliability.

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Now, it's not an unreasonable conclusion to draw that any ancient text that we have only copies of (in other words, we lack the original documents) may have copyist errors (or mistranslations, or erroneous fixes, or whatnot). This is such an obvious statement that it isn't even interesting.
Agreed, in the same sense as modern books get misprints.
But it's not in the same sense, unless you're proposing an that there were ancient Minolta Photoscribes or something like that. The transmission methods are different as regards who was doing the copying. Additionally, with modern books, we can at least in principle go back to the original manuscript or data file.

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Some of these errors may be significant when compared to the notional original. This statement isn't particularly interesting, either.
This is speculation, tho. It might be true, but I feel that we have to take a self-denying ordinance and refuse to use this argument, without evidence of specifics.

The reason is that it leads very quickly to "I am going to ignore this passage which is inconvenient for my theory about Roman bowel movements as an 'obvious' interpolation, while retaining this one which is convenient."

This happened in the 19th century, and human nature being what it is, seems to happen as soon as people start to accept unevidenced statements about damage in transmission as reasons to ignore texts.
My statement, as I wrote it, is true. Ehrman cites several instances where the differences between mss are significant. (There aren't that many options here - either one mss matches the original, perhaps with insignificant deltas, and the others don't, or none of them match the original. Significant differences between mss are still significant differences between mss in either case.)


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The problem is that the value of those ancient texts isn't really contingent upon the original versions of them.
Um, but surely it is? Think about a history, a recipe for curing foot-rot, a list of Roman legions and their commanders. If we propose to use these, damage is a problem. (I wonder if I understand your point here, tho).
You're a little off, but that's my fault for not making the point more clearly. What I'm trying to get across here is that for any given ancient text, we don't judge its value based on what an original may have said - we judge its value based on the best reconstruction we can get of it now. (In point of fact, even if we happened to get lucky and recover the original of some arbitrary ancient text, it would be extremely difficult to confirm that it was indeed the original and not a very early copy.)

The Bible is pretty much unique, at least in the Western world, in the sense that it directly and measurably influences both personal and social policies and interactions. That influence makes it an imperative that we be very careful in how we deal with it.


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If we don't have them, we don't have them. Period. The value of those texts is in whatever we happen to have now. We take what we have and move forward with it, and if we happen to find an earlier version of something, we incorporate that into our body of knowledge.

We certainly use what we have; on the basis that it is the original, as best we can tell.
I would state it differently to say that we use what we have, on the basis of the best reconstruction that we can muster.


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Now, you appear to be claiming that this is a fatal problem, and you appear to be claiming this because you want to be able to make some specific claim about the Bible - that it's been transmitted with <some quantifiable degree of> fidelity. You need to be able to claim that because you want to hold the Bible up as authoritative. This is special pleading, plain and simple.
If so, well, it is your own, for I haven't raised the issue.
So you don't seek to hold the Bible up as authoritative?

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My view on the transmission of texts applies to all ancient literary texts, whatever their contents. It is a pragmatic one, designed to exclude the most serious problem with using ancient texts -- modern bias; and especially *my* bias.
The problem is that you appear to be applying a tremendous bias in assuming the reliability of transmission.

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(As an aside, nobody is claiming that the current Bible is completely different from the original texts - Ehrman himself admits quite freely that most of the differences in the mss are minor and inconsequential. The Bible apparently does have a fairly high overall degree of transmissional fidelity, and in terms of the broad themes, that's not a problem at all.)
Firstly, this is correct, as I understand it.

Secondly, tho, this is not the message that people are getting from Ehrman and repeating all over the place -- what I see is "texts cannot be copied from antiquity".
Well, I've read a lot of Ehrman, both his popular books and his scholarly books and articles. I feel very strongly that he writes very clearly and with appropriate caveats on his conclusions, and consequently readers shouldn't be getting this message. I'm certainly not going to argue with you that people aren't coming away with that message.

I've asked you before if you'd read any of Ehrman's work yourself. I believe that you indirectly indicated you had not. If that's the case, I think this particular discussion - that of the message people take from Ehrman's writings - would be well served if you did read some of his material. Then we could discuss specifics instead of generalities.

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Oddly, though, for most ancient texts, the issue is largely irrelevant. When I read The Iliad, I'm not overly concerned with whether I've got the Fagels translation or the Fitzgerald - they both do the job.
Indeed so.
Agreement!

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I'm not basing social policy on whether or not Athena really tricked Hector, or whether the account of that event was transmitted faithfully. The Bible is different, though ... social policy, at many levels, is based on the Bible....
But step back a moment. Is this not to say that any text which becomes politically important 2000 years later must suddenly, retrospectively, develop a different kind of transmission? Because as it stands, all texts are transmitted the same way. We cannot very well demand different standards for texts which we happen to consider important; that is much the same as saying (for practical purposes) that any text of importance is useless, to the degree that it is important. Furthermore...
The problem is that texts aren't transmitted the same way - yes, they were hand copied, but depending on the text, the time period, and the location those scribes could have been very literate professionals or barely literate hobbyists. It makes a difference.

Now, we can go back and forth about different standards and whatnot, but at the end of the day it comes back to this:

A) We've got a bunch of different mss of various parts of the NT.
B) There are a bunch of differences between corresponding passages within those mss.
C) They can't all be right.
D) Modern Bibles contain passages, indeed entire books, of debatable origin and/or questionable translation, due in large part to A) through C).

These are facts. They're not open to debate.

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In this forum, I think all of us have sufficient educational advantages (even me) to know all ancient literary texts are transmitted more or less in the same manner. Some may feel that all of them should be rejected, if inconvenient, but it is perhaps fortunate for us all that Petrarch and Boccaccio and Poggio and Scaliger and all the body of the humanists of the renaissance did not agree, corrupt and late as nearly all their texts were, and corrupted still further by lazy and avaricious Italian scribes.
The "more or less", above, is key.

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But then this is what I mean when I talk about the obscurantism inherent in such a position; we're rejecting something of inestimable value, something we really do have -- the classical heritage --, for short-term convenience.
Absolutely not. The heritage of which you speak is really the aggregate sum of what has gone before. In the case of texts, the heritage includes not only the originals that are lost to history, but the copies, edits, mistakes, translations, and interpretations that yield the version that I can obtain today.

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I would ask you to consider: is there really no other manner of registering one's hostility to Christianity, other than by tearing up the heritage of mankind? Is there no other reason to suppose that the bible is wrong in what it asserts, other than these technical excuses which disrupt all our knowledge of antiquity?

Atheism does not require this position, surely? Indeed would classically educated atheist ever dream of adopting it? Why shoot oneself in the foot like this?

It is, above all, unnecessary. If we possessed the author's autographs of the entire NT, do we not agree that it would not affect one iota the question as to whether Christianity is true?

IMHO, of course. I really would rather keep religious arguments out of the study of the transmission of texts.
It's extraordinarily difficult to keep religious arguments out of a discussion that centers on the reliability of the NT.

There are, certainly, plenty of other reasons to suppose inaccuracy in the Bible, but we happen to be embroiled in a discussion in the Biblical Criticism and History forum of a discussion board populated heavily by atheists, agnostics, and assorted other flavors of skeptics.

I suspect very few, if any, here have "tear up the heritage of mankind" on their personal agendas, and were the Bible not so influential and prominent in the modern Western world, I suspect there would be a lot less discussion on what it says and how it was formed.

(Incidentally, re: your comment about possessing the original autographs - I agree that it wouldn't affect the question of the veracity of Christianity.)

regards,

NinJay

(As an aside: Roger, would you be willing to adopt the convention of either splitting responses to long posts among several posts? The VB software makes long intercalated respones somewhat cumbersome, and I suspect some readers might find shorter post/response sequences easier to follow.)
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Old 04-16-2008, 06:17 AM   #26
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Um, I'm very short of time, and I'm not sure that I have anything further to add on this. Very long posts are impossible to follow, as you rightly say.

Your responses seem to be reiterations to me (because I think that I have already addressed the issues that they contain).
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Old 04-16-2008, 06:20 AM   #27
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It's also full of real history.
Last time I checked, the only facts in the Iliad that are considered undisputed are (1) Troy existed at the time in question (13th century BCE, plus or minus a bit), (2) it fought some wars and lost them, and (3) some Greek forces were probably involved in at least one of those wars.
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Old 04-17-2008, 10:55 AM   #28
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I was interested to see the letter by Bart Ehrman, but it seemed to me to encourage this obscurantism as well, which is very annoying to see in someone paid to study the subject.
Although in this letter Ehrman describes a process by which small changes accumulate, this is not the main type of change that he describes in his books. In this case he appears to be simply rebutting the ridiculous claim of 99.5% accuracy. If anything is obscurantism, it is this number which is getting bandied around.

My understanding of what I have read from him, is that deliberate changes to support particular doctrinal views were much more significant.

There are some major differences between the transmission of the NT and the Classics. For the first couple of hundred years or so, the NT was copied by amateurs, who made many more mistakes when compared to dedicated scribes. More importantly, the NT documents were holy texts, whose words were used as a basis for doctrine. This obviously creates huge motivation for making changes, let alone complete forgery. The same does not apply to the works of Cicero.

Another problem with comparing the NT to the classics is that the NT is still the basis of doctrine for many Christians today. This obviously raises the bar a bit.

Your claim that "the NT is the best preserved of ancient literary texts", while probably true in shear numbers of ancient copies, is grossly misleading when it comes down to analysing what the original Christians might have actually believed. This is obsucrantism.
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Old 04-17-2008, 11:01 AM   #29
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There are some major differences between the transmission of the NT and the Classics. For the first couple of hundred years or so, the NT was copied by amateurs, who made many more mistakes when compared to dedicated scribes. More importantly, the NT documents were holy texts, whose words were used as a basis for doctrine. This obviously creates huge motivation for making changes, let alone complete forgery. The same does not apply to the works of Cicero.
The NT is not unique among ancient texts in ideologically motivated changes.

There seem to have been attempts by later Platonists to rewrite Plato so as to make him agree with their understanding of Platonism.
See Dillon 1989 "Tampering with the Timaeus" American Journal of Philology 110:50-72

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Old 04-17-2008, 11:22 AM   #30
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There are some major differences between the transmission of the NT and the Classics. For the first couple of hundred years or so, the NT was copied by amateurs, who made many more mistakes when compared to dedicated scribes.
I wonder what the evidence for these claims might be. I have a feeling that you are perhaps repeating something from somewhere here? How do we know this?

As far as I know, we do not know very much about the now non-existent ancient ancestors of our medieval copies of the classics, for the obvious reason that they are, well, non-existent.

Certainly texts like Livy were revised and copied in private households in late antiquity, as copied subscriptio's indicate.

I have a feeling that these statements are the conclusions of some kind of argument, rather than pieces of data as they appear?

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More importantly, the NT documents were holy texts, whose words were used as a basis for doctrine. This obviously creates huge motivation for making changes, let alone complete forgery. The same does not apply to the works of Cicero.
The idea that people have no motivation to alter (e.g.) histories seems curious to me. I seem to remember that people joked that the Soviet official histories were issued loose-leaf, so that the pages could be revised more readily as people fell out of favour and disappeared from 'history'. We can all imagine reasons why texts might be changed.

But as I have remarked at least twice already, unless we restrict ourselves to changes for which we actually have evidence, we go directly to subjectivity where texts are considered corrupt for reasons other than evidence.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
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