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05-04-2004, 10:12 PM | #31 | ||
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I would ask anyone reading this post of mine not to get the impression that I have never tried to reconcile the resurrection narratives. I have tried to reconcile them. I once came up with my own way to reconcile the synoptics with John and refuted it. I have come to conclude that it's very difficult-if not impossible to reconcile them. Matthew |
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05-05-2004, 06:51 AM | #32 |
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Roland, excellent points. Your first post is basically a demand for consistency. I've never been through this gospel harmonization before, so I'm learning for the first time what sorts of flexibility is needed. Should I assume the same sort of flexibility when I read other stories? To be fair, yes.
For example, Noah and his wife and his three sons and their wives got into the ark, according to Genesis 7:7,13. In Genesis 9:18 we're told that Noah and his sons exited the ark, told their names, and told that their descendents spread over the whole earth--but the wives aren't mentioned explicitly. The wives might have gotten on the ark and never gotten off. Two of them might have fallen overboard. Maybe a new wife was rescued from, perhaps, a high tree where she'd perched to escape the rising water. That's all speculation, but because the Genesis account is so sparse on detail, no one can claim that what I speculated certainly did NOT happen. Granted, there's no reason to suppose anything of the sort DID happen (assuming the Genesis story is basically true). But sometimes pastors will preach sermons that hinge entirely on a point as obscure or unsupported as Noah's wife's survival of the flood. Wow, your second point is more persuassive still. I just read Mark and Luke, paying attention to Mary Magdalene. There's no question in my mind, from those two sources, that she did enter the tomb, as you say, and see the angel. The question is, is harmonizing John *expanding* on the information from Mark and Luke or *changing* the meaning of Mark and Luke? Arg, uncomfortable question. As far as the car accident story, you're right the first account is misleading. But is it in error? If it's a police report or a newspaper articile, it certainly fails, because we expect from both of those things not only correctness but completeness. But if it's an eyewitness testimony, or a second-hand testimony, it's not so far wrong. In fact it's very likely the sort of account the police would hear, when they were interviewing witnesses later. They'd say, "From witness A we get the names Mary M. and Mary, from witness B we get these other names, from witness C we get the fact that Mary M. slipped out to buy cigarettes...." and they'd reconstruct what happened. Each testimony illuminates further the true story of the accident. But the question remains, is A's testimony inerrant? I lean towards the answer "no". Thanks for telling me your objections and not blowing me off entirely as a hard-headed inerrantist! It helps keep me real. These are hard questions indeed. |
05-05-2004, 07:18 AM | #33 |
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Matt_the_Freethinker, I confess I was not thorough enough in my version checking. The King James Version has very confusing pronouns in Luke 24:5, and I thought the vagueness was Luke's, but in turns out, in comparison with your translation and a few others, to have been the translator's.
Minus that point, my defense of loose pronoun interpretation is appreciably weakened. BTW, if you're willing to share and have a handy copy you could cut 'n paste, I'd be very interested to see your attempted-then-rejected reconciliation. |
05-05-2004, 12:15 PM | #34 | ||
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05-05-2004, 12:21 PM | #35 | |
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05-06-2004, 12:55 PM | #36 |
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Hmmm, I'm interested in what you claim about the Noah's ark story, Legion. Can you give chapter and verse for the two different versions?
Your point about needing the original Greek is relevant, and about to become more so. For Matthew's Easter account to mesh with the other three, one must assume an a-chronological progression, hinging on the words introducing the earthquake-and-angels-descending verses. Oh well, as a non Greek scholar I do what I can, and inform myself of the possibilities within reason. I don't have the motivation just yet to learn Biblical Greek. |
05-06-2004, 01:26 PM | #37 | |
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05-06-2004, 01:36 PM | #38 |
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I think the point is the Greek might not have pronouns, it might have identifiable nouns like "the women" and yet the English translator might have put "they" on the assumption the reader knew what came before. Kind of like the KJV did in Luke 24:5.
However, I tend to agree with you that pronouns must refer to clear antecedents, and this rule applies across languages. Breaking that rule leads to unclear writing. Unclear writing isn't necessarily incompatible with inerrancy, however. |
05-06-2004, 02:20 PM | #39 |
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As an alternative to learning Greek, one can take advantage of the resources at Blue Letter Bible.org (links to Luke 24). I can't figure much out by looking at it... the verb in question isn't associated with a noun or a pronoun ("they said unto them" in verse 5)... but you can look at the greek text, the greek transliteration (in order of the english language rendition), and you can click on each word in the transliteration (or its Strong's number) to get a fuller expansion on its meaning. There are also notes on verb tense, voice, etc... It's no substitute for learning ancient Greek if you want to get serious about this stuff, but it's good enough for government work, if you are just trying to make sure the Christians haven't snuck around and been right about something behind our backs - like I do.
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05-06-2004, 03:21 PM | #40 |
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Ah, so the KJV is closer to the Greek after all! Most translations I've looked at use "the men" to make Luke 24:5 clearer, but from the link you gave, partial plate, it looks like the original Greek uses pronouns.
So the argument for Luke's use of slippery pronouns still stands. |
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