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10-06-2012, 10:35 PM | #11 |
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Brock points out that, in Late Antiquity, mirrors were not made of mercury-coated glass, but were of bronze, and so required continual burnishing. Even if protected from dust, the mirror would still tarnish and thus require polishing (1982d, 138). Bearing this in mind, we see why Ephrem concludes: "If our mirror is darkened / this is altogether a source of joy to those morally ugly / in that their blemishes are no longer reproved; / whereas if our mirror is polished and illumined, / then it is our free will that has been adorned. Refrain: Blessed is He who has polished our mirror" (CNis XVI. 1-4, LumE 56; cf. NPNF 13:185). McVey speaks of "the image of the mirror as a means to self-knowledge and moral improvement" (McV 401, n. 490, citing Beck 1953).
Poetically, the image of the mirror might include any reflective surface. A prime example is that of oil. Speaking of the immanent spirit of Christ, Ephrem writes: "The Anointed is all faces and the oil (mesha) is just like a mirror; / from wherever I look at the oil the Anointed (Messiah) looks out at me from within." The simile, "the oil is just like a mirror," is more literal than metaphorical, considering that, in Late Antiquity, a bowl of oil was frequently used as a mirror. Word plays are a common feature in Ephrem's hymns. http://books.google.com/books?id=whf...ral%22&f=false |
10-06-2012, 10:46 PM | #12 |
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What I get out of מרק is that women had harsh cosmetic treatments. The verb has the basis of scouring or polishing, the way you clean metals. Purification is a euphemism or even a mistranslation. This was back in the days before soap. People scoured themselves with oil to ease the friction to get that clean look. You wouldn't want to do it too frequently.
This, "Satan has polished Marcion so brightly that he may rust", is actually quite amusing for a pisstake,... typical wordplay. |
10-06-2012, 10:56 PM | #13 | |
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But were the Marcionites associated with some sort of extra-strength scouring associated with baptism? That's the sense of Ephrem's statement. I think Cyril of Jerusalem mentions this scouring too. In the RC tradition it's there too.
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10-06-2012, 11:02 PM | #14 | |
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Let's start with Apost. Const. vii. 22: "But thou shalt beforehand anoint the person with holy oil (e'lai/w), and afterward baptize him with water, and n the conclusion shat seal him with the ointment (mu/rw), that the anointing (xri/sma) may be a participation of the Holy Spirit, and the water a symbol of the death, and the ointment the seal of the Covenants. But if there be neither oil nor ointment, water suffices both for anointing, and for a seal, and for a confession of Him who died, or indeed is dying with us."
Cyril has (Catechetical Lectures XX): Quote:
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10-06-2012, 11:16 PM | #15 | |
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There is no reference to 'exorcism oil' in Hippolytus's Apostolic Traditions but it is present in the reference to baptismal preparation and exorcism at the end of the fourth century in a document called the Canones ad Gallos, that is, "Canons to the Gauls" (ca. 400), a collection of Roman responses to various inquiries from Gallican bishops.
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10-06-2012, 11:26 PM | #16 |
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Also we should remember Clabeaux's (Lost Edition) idea that the Marcionite NT is related to the early Latin text. The Roman Church's radical celibacy has always struck me as related to Marcionitism.
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10-06-2012, 11:31 PM | #17 | |
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10-06-2012, 11:32 PM | #18 |
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BTW spin your observation was quite helpful. People often wonder why I develop these threads. it is amazing how useful getting constructive criticism/input is. but there is something here. the description of Marcion being excessively polished may go back to a rival baptism tradition which was quite pervasive.
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10-07-2012, 12:30 AM | #19 |
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My problem again is with the specific form mrqyon and mrqyona. WTF? It just seems odd to me that the same association (mrq) is connected with Marcus and Marcion. So what's the solution? Here is what I am thinking:
a) there never was anyone named Mark or Marcion and they are back formations from 'the cleansed' (notice that borborite is a reactionary terminology). b) mrqyon is a phrase of some sort - mrq + yon but what makes sense? c) Mark is the actual person associated with cleansing and there is some confusion with respect to some form I don't know about e.g. rea/reayon (purpose, thought); demah/dimayon (image/imagination) I don't have a clue. |
10-07-2012, 03:20 AM | #20 | |
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The polishing of the ancient mirrors is thoughtful. I would profit from your elaboration of the traditional method of baptism/cleansing operations in ancient Judaism. I am a few decades in arrears, to forgive the next question. Why is Ephrem the Syrian not called Ephraim the Syrian? Yes, I understand that Ephraim was an important figure, described in the Torah. No, I don't comprehend why the Greek is not converted in Roman letters to Ephraim, nevertheless. Why could he not be Ephraim, the Syrian, instead of Ephrem the Syrian. Do you understand why I ask this question? He lived in the 4th Century. There were not a few theological debates in that century, right? So, is it possible, that the answer to your much more profound questions, lies in analyzing how, and why, (i.e. the circumstances of), his name became reduced from Ephraim to Ephrem in the Roman Empire. What else, about Ephraim the Syrian, was changed from the original text, apart from his name? One could argue that it was a simple mistake, but I doubt that. |
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