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Old 03-29-2006, 08:36 AM   #31
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Hey great Richbee! You have just shown yourself fully capable of using the fallacy of appeal to authority. Now if only you learned the languages in question and read up on the necessary history perhaps we can have a decent conversation around here.
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Old 03-29-2006, 08:55 AM   #32
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Originally Posted by Richbee
In review:

The Gospel of Thoams (GoT) is based on an ant eaten manuscript with over 50% from the Gospel of Matthew or other gospels. The problem is that the Greek - Coptic - English translations are very poor and rough, if not filled with errors.

Quote:

"Most scholars believe that the Gospel of Thomas is highly tainted with the heretical philosophy known as Gnosticism (Cameron, Ron (1992), “Gospel of Thomas,” The Anchor Bible Dictionary, David Noel Freedman, Ed. (New York: Doubleday), Vol. 6. )

[snipped]
I asked you for proof that the disciple Thomas didn't write GThomas. None of the above is proof. What your argument appears to be is that you don't like the contents of GThomas, therefore a disciple of Jesus couldn't have written it.
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Old 03-29-2006, 09:19 AM   #33
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Richbee
So I take it that you missed the internal textual evidence for the disciple Matthew representing the author of Matthew's gospel?
There isn't any internal textual evidence to indicate the name of the author.
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All extant ancient manuscripts of the first Gospel have the superscription, kata Matthaion (“according to Matthew”).
Thank you. I know Greek. I doubt that you do.

How old do you think the extant manuscripts of Matthew are? Do you actually think that 3rd or 4th century mauscript titles mean anything?

Matthew wasn't the first Gospel, by the way. It copied Mark.
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And, do you have the first edition of GoJ?
Why would that be necessary?
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On what grounds do you reject this internal textual evidence? (So who was the other "Beloved Disciple" named John?)
There is no internal evidence. The text does not say that the beloved disciple was John, nor does it say he was the author of the text, nor does even the interpolated appendix in 21 say that the disciple it refers to was John.

The identity of the beloved disciple is unknown. It is only 2nd century tradition which identified him as John and claimed he was the author of the book.
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Old 03-29-2006, 10:39 AM   #34
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Richbee


On what grounds do you reject this internal textual evidence? (So who was the other "Beloved Disciple" named John?)
All the internal evidence is against John being the author. The author never mentions John or his so-called brother James by name. No mention of the Transfiguration, which John was supposedly an eyewitness to. Placing the temple scene early in the ministry is so preposterous that it betrays the fact that the author was not an eyewitness. Furthermore, there is good reason to suspect that John and James are literary creations of Mark, paralleled after the Heavenly Twins of Greek mythology.
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Old 03-29-2006, 11:40 AM   #35
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Originally Posted by Richbee
...
Occasionally, some very absurd language is put into the Lord’s mouth. Here is an example:

“Simon Peter said to them: ‘Let Mary (Magdalene) go out from among us, because women are not worthy of the Life.’”

“Jesus said:

‘See I shall lead her, so that I will make her male, that she too may become a living spirit, resembling you males. For every woman who makes herself male will enter the Kingdom of Heaven.’”

Quote:

Does that even remotely resemble the dignified status that women are afforded in the New Testament?

...


Dignified as in, say, working as a prostitute and wiping Jesus' feet with one's hair?

The NT reflects the culture of its time. Women were generally second class persons as far as religious practice went, not allowed to be priests or hold religious office in the Jewish practice of the time. Why are there no named women disciples of Jesus?
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Old 03-29-2006, 11:51 AM   #36
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Originally Posted by Richbee
Does that even remotely resemble the dignified status that women are afforded in the New Testament?
Riiiight...

1 Tim. 2:11-12
Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection. But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.

1 Peter 3:1
Likewise, ye wives, be in subjection to your own husbands; that, if any obey not the word, they also may without the word be won by the conversation of the wives;

The list goes on and on about how 'dignified' their treatment is...

Julian
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Old 03-30-2006, 06:38 PM   #37
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Richbee
On what grounds do you reject this internal textual evidence?
On the grounds that it's a circular argument unless there is a clear connection with independent external evidence.
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Old 03-30-2006, 08:19 PM   #38
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Greetings Richbee,

Regarding the authorship of the Gospels, I refer you to my post in the other thread :

http://www.iidb.org/vbb/showthread.p...88#post3265988

This shows that the earliest references are to SINGULAR, UN-named Gospels.

Especially note Justin - who refers c. 150 to the "memoirs of the apostles" which are also "called Gospels" - he quotes from them at length (they are not quite the same as our modern versions, but very similar.) He never once mentions the author's names, which argues strongly that they were still UN-named in his time.

Also note Aristides who referred to a SINGULAR "Gospel as it is called" (without mentioning an author) which had only been "preached a short time" in his day (138-161). This argues that the Gospel was still un-named in that period, and still fairly new to Christians.

Several other references show that only a single, UN-named Gospel was known as late as mid 2nd century.

The current names are LATER additions - probably by Irenaeus in c.185


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Old 04-29-2006, 07:28 PM   #39
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
You can take the quotation marks off the word scholar.

Pagels thinks that the Thomas represented a sapiential teaching (i.e., that Jesus was not God, only a sort of "enlightened" teacher who spoke of a 'light" within each person. There's nothing really "Gnostic" about that, at least not in the sense that involved archons and evil gods of the earth and a spiritual Jesus, etc.

Incidentally, Pagels thinks that Paul was a Gnostic.
IMO, Elaine Pagels is a Neo-gnostic witch! :smile:

Gnosticism is dualistic - Lightness/darkness, with two gods. One Good and one Evil. And, Gnosticism comes from Syria or Persia and predates Christianity.

Paul wrote many Apologetic aguments against these ideas.
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Old 04-29-2006, 07:36 PM   #40
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Julian
How is it possible to have heretics when there was no orthodoxy yet?

Julian
Heretics are within the Church, teaching a different Gospel. See Galatians, when Paul asks, who taught you a different Gospel. Paul corrects many errors in his letters.

These never was a "Gospel of Thomas" and dead men don't write books.

In Christianity there is only the Gospel of Jesus Christ, and Paul does mention the Gospel message.

I have studies the early Gnostic history and it is far off, and way out of of bounds. Practically anti-semitic, against Jews and against the Old Testament. (e.g. Marcion)
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