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Originally Posted by Alf
I have no problem believing that there really was a praetorian who testified as such under oath. I have a problem believing said praetorian but that is a different issue.
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I completely agree. To clarify I was merely attempting to demonstrate the degree to which Suetonius used common gossip and unsubstantiated stories and why just because there are unbelievable stories in them it does not mean that the whole thing is fictional. For example, in another story, Augustus's mother was supposedly worshipping in the temple of Apollo when she fell asleep and was impregnated by the god (Augustus, 94). This sounds very similar to the Virgin Mary but just because it is likely fictional it doesn’t mean that Atia or Mary did not exist- though I am prepared to admit that there is far more evidence that Augustus existed than Jesus.
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Originally Posted by dongiovanni1976x
As far as the historical reliability for Jesus goes we can start with Paul.
Paul is a contemporary of Jesus, though he never met him in person he claims that he knows of Jesus' brother (Gal 1:19) and for us to have a written testimony of such a claim is an historical source. To have Josephus, an independent Jewish source corroborate this by recounting that,
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Alf
The problem here is that one cannot put too much reliance on "brother of". It is a phrase that might imply kinship and that is the urual meaning but - and in partucular - in religious texts might also simply mean someone who is either a fellow believer or someone who has a special position within the cult of believers - especially when used in the form "brother of the lord" - that smacks more like a title than an actual description of someone being the brother of someone referred to as "the lord". It could be that they had this religious brotherhood and someone in a special leader position was referred to using such a title.
So, although it might be taken as an extremely weak form of evidence for a HJ it is very far from conclusive and by itself is simply worthless as evidence for HJ.
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The phrase might mean a lot of things but since you yourself admit that the common or “usual” meaning is kinship, it should be assumed unless a better reason is provided to demonstrate otherwise. The “better” reason you suggest is that “brother of the lord” should be read as a title of a believer and not someone who is kin to Jesus. However the verse says, “Then after three years I did go up to Jerusalem to visit Cephas and stayed with him fifteen days; but I did not see any other apostle except James the Lord’s brother.” (Gal 1:18,19) This specific reference certainly doesn’t “smack of a title” like saying James was “a” brethren in the community of believers, but is rather clear that he is the “brother of the Lord” and thus one of Jesus’ kin (see also Mark 6:3; Matt 13:55).
Had this been just one isolated reference it would be a rather weak form of evidence for an historical Jesus, but as I demonstrated it is corroborated by at least two independent sources- that being Josephus and Mark.
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Originally Posted by Alf
Problem with this is that "James"…is a common jewish name. if the storyteller himself confused one James with another James he would assume they were the same people and would convey this to the next and so on.
The problem here is of course that all the gospels stem from oral traditions and how reliable they are in details of this nature is highly questionable. It would be very easy to confuse one James with another James - simply because the stories were not written down yet but were oral traditions. Later when they were written down, the gospel writers simply continued such a confusion.
So, it is quite possible that the James referred to by Paul is a different James from the James referred to in gospels but that they got confused into one individual and this served the church's purpose just fine because that gave legitimacy to Paul which is the side they followed and so they saw no reason to question that they were the same James.
Of course, this does not at all prove that there were different James around, it could well be the same person but it does prove that using this as evidence for a historical Jesus doesn't quite work. It is very weak evidence at best - if it can be considered evidence at all.
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Whatever subjective term you apply to this “evidence” it does not require as many “could of meant’s” and “might have meants” as your scenario. All I am attempting to demonstrate is why respected historians like Dr. Bart Ehrman, to whom this thread was initially singled out, accept a Historial Jesus and reject the cumbersome Mythical Jesus hypothesis.
The burden is upon you to demonstrate that we should take the premise “there were a lot of people named James back then” and then from that conclude that the James Paul claims to have met in Jerusalem and the one that Josephus recounts as being delivered by the high priest Ananus to be stoned and the one that the author of the gospel of Mark states independently confirms was one of the brothers of Jesus are not one in the same.
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Originally Posted by Alf
(regarding Tacitus, Suetonius and archaeological finds) demonstrate that it is POSSIBLE that there was some historical Jesus behind it all but that is the best it can do. It is nowhere close to prove that this is the way it happened.
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This is all I am attempting to demonstrate. There was an historical figure from which all this originated. Itw asn’t all a big conspiracy under Constantine or some Da Vinciesque conver up…Tacitus’ report of Jesus being crucified by Pontius Pilate and the plaque fragment at Caesarea Maritima which independently verifies Tacitus’ literary account (by confirming Pontius Pilate as Prefect under Tiberius), along with the Alexamenos Graffiti and the account by Suetonius which seems to compliment Tacitus (though some try to argue that Chrestus was not just a mispronunciation etc) only augment the fact that someone named Jesus, called the Christ (Josephus, Antiquities 20.9.1) was more than likely a real person.
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Originally Posted by Alf
(regarding the best possible explanation)
What really IS the best explanation? What is meant by "best"? I will presume "the one that require the fewest assumptions".
assuming a man named Jesus (or rather Yechu) existed in the region at that time is unproblematic - it was a common name.
Assuming that one such person may have been a form of rabbi - a teacher - is likewise unproblematic - there were lots of those around.
Assuming that some people thought he performed miralces is again unproblematic - superstition was rampant and people believed they saw miracles everywhere.
Assuming that he might have gotten crucified is also unproblematic.
For some, this is all they require for a historical Jesus. If so their historical Jesus possibly existed and we can accept it as a simplest explanation.
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We seem to be in agreement. What was it you thought I was trying to demonstrate?
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Originally Posted by Alf
while there may have existed such a historical Jesus it is nowhere close to the jesus presented by the church or the bible.
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Again I see some common ground here between us.
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Originally Posted by dongiovanni1976x
You cannot get much more evidence for this in antiquity from someone who was reportedly a criminal, who never wrote anything himself and was not wealthy enough to have momuments built in his honor or held any public position.
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Originally Posted by Alf
Maybe true but your description here is faulty. Although he was charged as a criminal if one is to believe the gospels, it is also obvious that the gospel writers themselves were convinced that he was not only innocent but that he was blameless or sinless.
So, while the "official" rome may had written little, his followers would have every reason to write down immediately - as soon as they could… It does not make sense! If you were an actual eye-witness and knew the historicla Jesus and you believed of your whole heart that he was innocently crucified and that he arose from the dead as proof that he was God's chosen or God incarnate, then if you were at all able to scribble you would write it down or you would find someone who could write it down, perhaps collect money among your fellow believers to get money to hire someone to write it down if nobody in your cult knew how to write.
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How many of his followers would you suspect as being literate? How many of them were wealthy enough to hire a scribe or had friends that were scribes? How many of his followers thought it would be so long before the kingdom would finally come? Even Paul is convinced that it is imminent:
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Originally Posted by Paula Fredriksen
Christ’s resurrection is evidence for Paul that the End is very near. It is a sign that the final days are not merely “at hand,” but have already arrived. It is upon us, he informs his Corinthian community, that the end of the ages has come (ta tele ton aionon katenteken; I Cor 10:11); “The form of the cosmos is passing away” (7:31).
Nor shall this final period extend indefinitely: Paul expects to live to see the Last Days. He speaks of his hope for the transformation of his present body before death (2 Cor 5:1-5), and in light of his conviction, he even feels it reasonable to urge his congregants to forswear sexual activity, “[for] the appointed time has grown very short” (I Cor 7:26, 29). So near is the End that both Paul and his communities are troubled by the death of believers before Christ’s Second Coming: they did not expect this and do not know what to make of it (I Thes 4:13). So anomalous is a Christian’s dying before Christ returns that Paul suggests such deaths may be punitive: because the Corinthians have celebrated the Eucharist unworthily, he argues, many “are weak and ill, and some have died” (I Cor 11:30). …With Christ’s coming, the “dead in Christ” will then rise, to be joined by those still alive at the Parousia (among whom Paul expects to be, I Thes 4:15). “From Jesus to Christ” p58-59
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And the evolution from Mark to John shows how their intended audiences were coping with the delay of this kingdom- hence the need to redefine their beliefs and document the importance of the cultural meme that was started with the earliest followers…It seems like an odd objection to say that sucha scenario makes NO SENSE. What would you expect an insignificant, poor and illiterate group of Jews would spend their time doing, if they believed the day of judgment was imminent? We only begin to see writing when groups started squabbling about what was meant by this “teacher” and the need to convey this message made writing paramount.
Perhaps a definition of HJ and MJ is in order here. Our area of disagreement seems rather small…If you can accept that the best explanation is the minimalist Jesus you described, are you just suggesting that most of the stories attributed to him (miracles etc) are mythic? If so then you are a HJer IMHO.