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Old 01-22-2013, 03:33 AM   #101
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Paul's theology of justification by faith was cited in Romans 4:3, which quotes Gen 15:6, but it appears to me that the Hebrew in that verse actually states that Abram was praising the righteousness of God for making the promises in the preceding verses rather than God praising the righteousness of Abram for believing in God'd promises. What is your opinion?
The idea of justification by faith, from the events of John 6 onward, has been met with negative personal reactions, from simple rejection to the most extremely violent attempts to suppress it; as well as the most ingenious attempts to by-pass it. So it seems to have merit just on those accounts. It would appear that 'all the king's horses, and all the king's men' have been insufficient to overcome this interpretation.
Jesus certainly didn't agree that justification was by faith. In Matthew 25 the only basis upon which a person is allowed into heaven is whether they did good works. The subject of faith is apparently too trivial to play a part in deciding why one should be allowed into heaven. This contrasts sharply with paul's full blown Antinomianism in Romans 4:4-5.
In Matthew 25, was Jesus speaking about good works as means of justification, or as effects of justification?
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Old 01-22-2013, 06:18 PM   #102
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It is clear he was speaking of specific good works. Not all who claim to believe in Jesus demonstrate their faith by their works.
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Old 01-22-2013, 06:54 PM   #103
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Another point to make is that if Gen 15:6 supports a theology of righteousness based on faith rather than obedience, why did it take over 3000 years for somebody (namely Paul) to make that claim.
We do not have every writing that was written during those 3000 years, nor access to every argument that was ever made.
'Paul's' is simply one that survived, it is no indication that his was the first such argument ever to be made.

Both the Promises contained in The Torah, and in the Prophets are clear that the GENTILES -as Gentiles- would be reconciled to Yahweh -without any necessity of first becoming circumcised Jews. That is without the obligations of obedience to specifically Jewish Laws.
The 'Olam ha'ba' 'The Age to Come' and 'The Kingdom of Elohim' was -IS- to be filled with Gentiles praising the Elohim of Abraham -the Father of many Gentiles, the 'goyim' > the Nations.
A lot of JEWS recognized and acknowledged this -Scriptural FACT- long before Paul was even born. These were the ones that knew better than to try to force circumcision or Laws made specifically for JEWS upon the Gentiles that lived among them. The ger toshavim were to live as gentiles and unmolested.
NOT be forced to become circumcised whereby they would no longer be 'gentiles' but Law keeping Jews in a violation of the Promises.
The author of Exodus 12:48 certainly didn't believe Gentiles could get right with God apart from circumcision.
Exodus 12:48 has nothing to do with getting 'right' with Yahweh.

It is a command that maintains the Scripturally enjoined wall of separation between Israel and the Gentiles.
Strangers (Gentiles) could live peacefully along with Israel, and they were most welcome even to join with Israel in offering up praise and thanks to Yahh.
But were restricted as Gentiles only from the eating of the Passover seder, although they were free to be present, and within the house to respect that Holy night, and to join in Israel's Leyl Shemorim -the all night vigil- of the fourteenth night of Abib. (Ex 12:42)
(Gentiles were present, and were safe within the Jews blood marked houses on that first Passover, they simply could not eat of that restricted Paska meal.)

If a Gentile chose, they could become circumcised, and thenceforth be free to eat of the seder, being through circumcision now of the household of Israel, and thus no longer of the Strangers (Gentiles) becoming thereby Jews themselves, and subject to all of the Laws applying to Jews.
But there was never any Scriptural obligation nor requirement to do this, as the believing Gentiles already held a special status, with its own set of promises apart from the Law. As is also confirmed in the Prophets. No one need ever be circumcised or become a Jew to enjoy the promises that Yahh-Yahweh made to the Nations (Gentiles) that believe upon and praise His Holy Name.
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Old 01-22-2013, 07:20 PM   #104
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The fullness of Law of Yahweh was not revealed until the time of Moses according to Scripture.
Righteous men before this time were justified by Yahweh without the obligations of Moses' Laws.

Abram was obedient in that he was willing to obey the voice of Yahweh, even to the point of offering up Isaac his only son on the altar.
This was not in obedience to any Law that he had received, but rather in sure confidence that the same voice that had guided him, would see to it that his son Isaac would survive.
He was so tested and his faith in Yahweh was so proven unshakable. Therefore Yahweh blessed him. Not for obedience to the dictates and details of a Jewish Law still yet to be revealed. Abraham was justified by faith in Yahweh his Elohim, and found to be righteous by Yahweh without the works of the Law.
If righteousness without the law worked for God in Abraham's day, I don't see any reason why God should feel compelled to create a law covenant.
The Torah tells us the reason; To raise up a people and a nation for His Name, Set apart by a set of Laws distinct from all the other nations of the earth.
The Law of the Covenant was given to separate Israel from all other nations.

And these other nations (the 'Gentiles') were not the recipients of that separating Law, nor subject to the 'touch not, eat not, handle not' strictures of that Law.
Thus a Jew was forbidden by Law to eat of any animal that died naturally, but it was perfectly acceptable for that Jew to give that carcass to his Gentile servant (within his gates) or sell it to any foreigner (outside his gates) who were free (from The Law) to eat of it (Deut 14:21)
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Old 01-24-2013, 07:30 AM   #105
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You wish.
This is not a playground for under-twelves.

The ark contained Law. So when the ark was removed, it was a signal that Law was inadequate. For people whose ancestry was founded on one whose justification was not by Law, but by faith, that must have been indication that the path was now clear for the messiah who would provide justification by faith. So righteousness without the Law worked for God in Abraham's day, in Israel's day, and in Joseph's day, and it was to work again, because Law very evidently did not work.

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Not a bit.
So the Messiah was in fact Jesus of Nazareth? Because a messiah has nothing to come back to now.
Your analysis assumes that there was actually some theological significance in superstitious behavior.

All of your arguments turn into crap if any of the previous stuff is false.

For example, almost all ancient people sacrificed animals to their gods to ensure the well being of the people or whatever.

In Judah, this eventually evolved into the temple service. Some people will claim that the temple service actually worked as opposed to the various pagan iterations, but allow me to suggest that it was total bullshit.

It is a law of the universe that you can't add bullshit to bullshit and get something that is not bullshit.

The Messiah is an obscure concept. This might be more sophisticated than giving your first born son to Moloch, but I doubt that aside from not going through the aggravation of killing an important family member there are any tangible benefits of one belief over the other.
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Old 01-29-2013, 02:52 PM   #106
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I just happened to notice that Gen 15:6 is not the basis of any of the 613 commandments of the Torah.

http://www.jewfaq.org/613.htm
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Old 01-29-2013, 05:40 PM   #107
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I just happened to notice that Gen 15:6 is not the basis of any of the 613 commandments of the Torah.

http://www.jewfaq.org/613.htm
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It is based primarily on the list compiled by Rambam in the Mishneh Torah, but I have consulted other sources as well. As I said in the page on halakhah, Rambam's list is probably the most widely accepted list, but it is not the only one. The order is my own, as are the explanations of how some rules are derived from some biblical passages.
613 is sort of a theoretical number. If I was going to bet on this, my choice would be that there are not exactly 613 commandments...maybe if we included "Fuck Jesus."

Having said that, I'm puzzled why Gen 15:6 could by any stretch of the imagination be considered a commandment. Maybe I missed something - I'm not even clear on why Gen 15:6 might be mistranslated.
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Old 01-29-2013, 07:05 PM   #108
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I just happened to notice that Gen 15:6 is not the basis of any of the 613 commandments of the Torah.

http://www.jewfaq.org/613.htm
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It is based primarily on the list compiled by Rambam in the Mishneh Torah, but I have consulted other sources as well. As I said in the page on halakhah, Rambam's list is probably the most widely accepted list, but it is not the only one. The order is my own, as are the explanations of how some rules are derived from some biblical passages.
613 is sort of a theoretical number. If I was going to bet on this, my choice would be that there are not exactly 613 commandments...maybe if we included "Fuck Jesus."

Having said that, I'm puzzled why Gen 15:6 could by any stretch of the imagination be considered a commandment. Maybe I missed something - I'm not even clear on why Gen 15:6 might be mistranslated.
The most significant parts of the Bible seem to be the most susceptible to mistranslation, for some reason.
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Old 01-29-2013, 08:29 PM   #109
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I just happened to notice that Gen 15:6 is not the basis of any of the 613 commandments of the Torah.

http://www.jewfaq.org/613.htm
Quote:
It is based primarily on the list compiled by Rambam in the Mishneh Torah, but I have consulted other sources as well. As I said in the page on halakhah, Rambam's list is probably the most widely accepted list, but it is not the only one. The order is my own, as are the explanations of how some rules are derived from some biblical passages.
613 is sort of a theoretical number. If I was going to bet on this, my choice would be that there are not exactly 613 commandments...maybe if we included "Fuck Jesus."

Having said that, I'm puzzled why Gen 15:6 could by any stretch of the imagination be considered a commandment. Maybe I missed something - I'm not even clear on why Gen 15:6 might be mistranslated.
The most significant parts of the Bible seem to be the most susceptible to mistranslation, for some reason.
Could it be that mistranslated verses are most often those that support Xian theology?
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Old 01-30-2013, 01:42 AM   #110
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a digression has been split off here
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