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Old 08-29-2009, 10:41 AM   #1
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Default New Book on Christian mysteries

From Kenneth Humphreys on the JM list:

Why Call Me God?: The Gospel Seen with a Single Eye (or via: amazon.co.uk) by J.H. Hatfield

http://www.whycallmegod.com/

Quote:
Throughout the author gives Greek and English verses side by side and highlights numerous mistranslations which result in those curious "anomalies" found in the Jesus tale. In the original language the wording makes a perfect though different sense. Hatfield traces a template for the gospels in the book of Genesis and a prototype for Lord God (Jesus) in Cain.
The first chapter can be read at the link above.
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Old 08-29-2009, 04:04 PM   #2
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Quote:
No one actually knows who wrote the books of the New Testament. Yet they were composed in common Greek and first came to public attention between 50 and 150 CE. Copies began to circulate in the second century; but it was not until the fourth century that they received widespread attention.

By that time the Greek language in which they were written had largely fallen from use in the western world.
Translations began to appear. Around 380 CE the scholar Jerome prepared an official version of the four gospels in Latin. This formed the basis for the so-called Vulgate bible. It is a version still in use by the Catholic Church today.

From perhaps as early as Marcus Aurelius in the mid 2nd century
it is widely known and reported that there was in fact a tremendous
revival in Greek cultural literature which was given its own name
by Philostratus in the 3rd century --- "The Second Sophistic".

The decline of Greek corresponds with the rise of the Christian state
cult and the widespread attention it received from the emperors.
At the end of the 4th century when Jerome was translating the
Vulgate, Epiphanius was compiling his list of major heresies against
the very pure christian state cult religion, and at the top of the list
we find Hellenism. We can be reasonably sure that the philosophers
and academics of the early fourth century following Porphyry, and all
those who were associated with the ancient Greek academy of Plato
as described by Eunapius, Lives of the Philosophers and Sophists
were only just becoming aware that they were inextricably bound in
christian heresy if they continued in their old ways after Nicaea.
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Old 09-11-2009, 10:28 AM   #3
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Just landed through the post box ... this could give me serious brain ache. :constern02:

Presently (chapter 2) the book is describing the system of the Ophites, with the names of the seven archons. All Greek to me
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Old 09-11-2009, 03:07 PM   #4
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For those interested in the book, it's much cheaper to buy it through Amazon uk and have it air mailed than to buy it new through Amazon us.
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Old 09-16-2009, 01:03 PM   #5
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Have read this book and am now working my way back through it.

The author says "For scripture of the Old Testament the immediate source was the CATSS LXX edition prepared by TLG".

The author then says ... "At LXX Gn1:27 God brings into being 'a person'".

I tried to find the CATSS LXX Greek Gn 1:27 and came up with...

και εποιησεν ο θεος τον ανθρωπον κατ' εικονα θεου εποιησεν αυτον αρσεν και θηλυ εποιησεν αυτους

How would this translate ? I think it hinges on ανθρωπον strictly meaning a person, not a man, 'man' being a wilful translation. He echoes Margaret Baker in saying that "the secong god was the creator, the archon that made the world (a gnostic character)".

It is stated that Jesus refers to himself as the 'son of the person'.
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Old 09-16-2009, 02:12 PM   #6
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sharrock View Post
Have read this book and am now working my way back through it.

The author says "For scripture of the Old Testament the immediate source was the CATSS LXX edition prepared by TLG".

The author then says ... "At LXX Gn1:27 God brings into being 'a person'".

I tried to find the CATSS LXX Greek Gn 1:27 and came up with...

και εποιησεν ο θεος τον ανθρωπον κατ' εικονα θεου εποιησεν αυτον αρσεν και θηλυ εποιησεν αυτους

How would this translate ? I think it hinges on ανθρωπον strictly meaning a person, not a man, 'man' being a wilful translation. He echoes Margaret Baker in saying that "the secong god was the creator, the archon that made the world (a gnostic character)".

It is stated that Jesus refers to himself as the 'son of the person'.
Found it... I'm in business... http://www.authentic-christianity.org/gn1to4.htm
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Old 09-16-2009, 02:19 PM   #7
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"Anthropos" techically means "person of either gender," as opposed to "aner" which always means male person, but there is an ongoing controvery over how it should be translated. There is a collection of articles here and more if you google anthropos aner "gender neutral" translation.
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Old 09-16-2009, 02:46 PM   #8
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sharrock View Post
It is stated that Jesus refers to himself as the 'son of the person'.
While it's ambiguous who Jesus is referring to sometimes when he uses that phrase, assuming that Jesus actually said these things - after the fact Christians have said that Jesus is referring to himself. Though the historical Jesus could have been using that phrase in the same way Daniel did; not referring to himself.

I would read it "son of the human", translating ανθρωπος though. The same phrase "son of the human" is found in the LXX versions of Ezekiel and Daniel, though in Hebrew both Ezekiel and Daniel literally say "son of adam" (in which "adam" means "human" in Hebrew).

Ironically in English, Luke chapter 3 has "son of Adam" describing Jesus' genealogy.
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Old 09-20-2009, 06:07 PM   #9
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Quote:
Originally Posted by show_no_mercy View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by sharrock View Post
It is stated that Jesus refers to himself as the 'son of the person'.
While it's ambiguous who Jesus is referring to sometimes when he uses that phrase, assuming that Jesus actually said these things - after the fact Christians have said that Jesus is referring to himself. Though the historical Jesus could have been using that phrase in the same way Daniel did; not referring to himself.

I would read it "son of the human", translating ανθρωπος though. The same phrase "son of the human" is found in the LXX versions of Ezekiel and Daniel, though in Hebrew both Ezekiel and Daniel literally say "son of adam" (in which "adam" means "human" in Hebrew).

Ironically in English, Luke chapter 3 has "son of Adam" describing Jesus' genealogy.
Christians often believe that the gospels actually quote the exact words of Jesus, but that just isn't true. The "words of Jesus" are not exact quotes, and that's obvious after comparison of the 4 gospels. To emphasize what you said--assuming that Jesus actually said these things--we cannot assume that Jesus said exactly what it attributed to him by modern translations' use of quotation marks.

What we have in the New Testament are various renditions of what Jesus is purported to have said in general, but not in specific.

No matter how various interpretations are "read" by individuals today, they aren't analyzing the exact words Jesus would have spoken because those aren't quoted in the scriptures.
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