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Old 07-24-2008, 08:13 AM   #51
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WTF?

Seriously. What does that even mean - you are created in a spiritual world? What does a linear environment mean? Why should our learning be accelerated in a physical environment, when we are going to end up in that spiritual world anyway - assuming it is not linear, how does our living in this world prepare us for that - do I prepare for free fall in orbit by going spelunking? No, you go to an environment that is similar but safer (such as water tanks or the "vomit comet").

Since you say "you may want" to come to reality (my words), that must mean that there are others that do not want to come into our world. It also implies that you are intelligent "energy" (I assume you are not using the real definition of this - the capacity to do work - but are using the nebulous concept that most people think of).

Since we choose our parents, then some people must choose drug users, abusive parents, child molesters, underage mothers, aids and syphilis victims, poor and starving parents, and the like - this seems like the "blame the victim" mentality of the like of "The Secret" and many religions. Is this energy not intelligent enough to know good parents from bad?

Since there is not enough room in an infants brain for this thought energy, does this mean that intelligence is correlated to brain size? Can a smaller, more active brain hold more energy than a larger, less active one? If this energy is related to the size (or even the development of the brain), then it should in some way be measurable, no?

Now, if it takes some time for us to learn to use the interface properly, it seems to me that we should progress at an accelerated rate once the basics are mastered. There are people that can master the interface of video games within days - shouldn't the situation be one of which we have seen in movies - the alien takes over, it is jerky and whatnot, and once it has adapted, it can use it's full capacities - to speak and all. Why does it take so long for the thought energy to adapt (and in some cases, it seems to never adapt). Why does this thought energy have no memory of the (no?-)-time it spent before it wanted this "accelerated learning"?

Assuming this is your theory, how can we test it?
I can't give you an education in spiritual things on a message board, and since I think you are skeptical I will provide a link that shows something about the spiritual world. You could also just pick one question at a time to ask.

http://www.aleroy.com/blog/

This is a video of near death experiences, if they peak your interest then we will continue.
Since I'm still at work (last day of summer school! - even if I have to stay two hours after all the kids have left - boo - but I get paid - yay!) so I have limited access (truthfully, I am amazed I can get to this site). I'll have to check it out later at home - probably tomorrow - have puppy training class. I've looked into near-death experiences (was a big woo-dog in my earlier years) and so far, when looked at with an objective eye as I can achieve, the evidence is very lacking. We have known physiological mechanisms that can account for the "visions" and other things that have been reported, and even the simple fact that people's near death experiences conform to their prior cultural or religious beliefs is indicative of a mental creation due to anoxia and our brains desire to make sense (and memories) of things.

If I was at home I could probably give a few links or put some files on my webpage - if I am able to I will put that up and post it here.

I'm open to a scientific investigation of the matter, but if all you have are assertions, then I'll more than likely have to pass. But I'll still take a look later.
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Old 07-24-2008, 08:33 AM   #52
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firstly, your claim is based on a distinction between primary and secondary qualities (with touch/extension vs. color as paradigm cases but pressure vs. pain sensation could be another case, as could many others). reasoning that since surface features of objects result in certain tactile qualia that they must result in certain visual qualia is unfounded.
Well, since I didn't do that, I'm at a loss as to why it's relevant.

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similarly for reasoning that since our fingers must recognize knives as sharp they must recognize knives as painful... in fact, in this latter case, we know it to be false... as with local anesthetics.
Irrelevant, I never said anything about pain.

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moreover, your example would only answer why pillows can't feel like knives and wouldn't answer why pillows or knives or anything else have any feel at all, sharp or painful or anything.
Well, the thing is, we know the knife imparts information to your brain whether you're a p-zombie or not, because the body responds to it the same either way. The example is designed to demonstrate that that information is necessarily relevant to the qualia. Once we admit this, the only open question is how deep down into the regress of explanations that relevance goes. If it goes all the way down, there is no hard problem, because in that case, the information processing (which nobody disputes the existence of) turns out to be identical to the qualia of the experience. To say that the zombie processes the information from the knife in the same way as the sentient human does is the same thing as saying that it is not a zombie at all. If this turns out to be the case, p-zombies aren't just unlikely, they're logically impossible. And if p-zombies are logically impossible, then it follows that there is no explanatory gap and no hard problem.

So, the conclusion is that we must consider the possibility that p-zombies are necessarily nonexistent, which is the same thing as saying that there is no hard problem. We just need more information, which is why it is not proven yet, but the point is that you can't disprove it yet either, and thus there is no basis for asserting that there is a hard problem.

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personally, i think that the entire primary/secondary distinction needs to be deflated because it rests on nothing more than the fact that some qualities get cross-modally confirmed and others do not. in other words, the only "inconsistency" in feeling a knife as pillowlike and not as knifelike arises from the discrepancy between seeing the knife on only one part of my hand and feeling something over more of my hand.
No, it arises from the pillow being in contact with more of your hand, which is stipulated. Whether you see it or not is irrelevant; the example works exactly the same with a blind man.


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but how is this an inconsistency? it is certainly unexpected and abnormal, but is no inconsistency anymore than, say, seeing our hand in a fire and feeling no pain.
If your hand is destroyed by fire and you feel no change, that seems to mean you weren't feeling your hand in the first place. It's the difference between sensing and hallucinating that is key here. Returning to the knife example--the question is whether the information that comes from physical contact with the knife is sufficient to determine a particular set of qualia, given a particular sentient being with which it comes in contact. This requires that the information from the knife actually gets through to the brain, which is another way of saying that the knife is sensed accurately.

Sure, there is no logical conflict between cutting your hand with a knife and feeling a soft pillow on it at the same time, but if this happens, you're not really sensing the knife. The qualia are so disconnected to the outside world that they almost aren't related to the knife at all. E.g. the knife is going into your skin, but you're not feeling anything go in; instead, you're feeling a soft surface pressing against a relatively large area of your hand. The sensation of a soft pillow is inconsistent with the behavior of the knife. There appears to be a discrepancy between accurately processing the information imparted by sharp or hard objects and the generation of soft qualia.

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it is not enough to say that there is indeed a brute fact that connects certain wavelengths with the red quale or whatever, because the hard problem would then just be the problem of why this fact is brute in ways that others are not.
This doesn't make any sense to me. The relevant definition of a brute fact is that it has no explanation; it simply is. Trying to explain a brute fact's "bruteness" would be pointless.

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in hundreds of years no one has shed the slightest hint of light on this or even gotten the foggiest notion of how they could go about finding out. they're not even able to form any sort of testable hypothesis for such a connection... they're utterly groping in the dark. nowhere else in the sciences are scientists confronted with such a complete incapacity to even begin an investigation.
Well, if you're saying that scientists aren't investigating the problems of consciousness, that's just ridiculous. It sounds like you've assumed your conclusion again; of course, scientists working on the easy problems is not even approaching the problem if the problem is hard. But of course many of them do not believe there is a hard problem; they think they are on the track to explaining consciousness because they expect that all the problems are "easy".

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it is in this negative sense that epiphenomenalism is scientifically supported. but really, we do not need to await the findings of those groping in the dark, because it is proven to anyone that does in fact have personal experience that there can be no reduction... their experience itself is all the evidence they need, and it it not a mere "intuition" but is evidence of the most direct possible sort. that brings us to the second point...
This is a really bizarre claim which I think I've seen before; it seems to suggest that, say, Daniel Dennett doesn't have first-person experiences, because if he did, he'd agree with you. Which is doubly absurd when you throw in epiphenomenalism because, if epiphenomenalism is true, experiential evidence has no effect on what happens in someone's brain anyway. The idea that you do things because of what you experience is an illusion in that case. You do things because of blind mechanistic forces; the evidence is qualitative and thus has no power to affect anything physical, so having experiences couldn't possibly make any difference in how you think.
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Old 07-24-2008, 12:48 PM   #53
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I can't give you an education in spiritual things on a message board, and since I think you are skeptical I will provide a link that shows something about the spiritual world. You could also just pick one question at a time to ask.

http://www.aleroy.com/blog/

This is a video of near death experiences, if they peak your interest then we will continue.
Since I'm still at work (last day of summer school! - even if I have to stay two hours after all the kids have left - boo - but I get paid - yay!) so I have limited access (truthfully, I am amazed I can get to this site). I'll have to check it out later at home - probably tomorrow - have puppy training class. I've looked into near-death experiences (was a big woo-dog in my earlier years) and so far, when looked at with an objective eye as I can achieve, the evidence is very lacking. We have known physiological mechanisms that can account for the "visions" and other things that have been reported, and even the simple fact that people's near death experiences conform to their prior cultural or religious beliefs is indicative of a mental creation due to anoxia and our brains desire to make sense (and memories) of things.

If I was at home I could probably give a few links or put some files on my webpage - if I am able to I will put that up and post it here.

I'm open to a scientific investigation of the matter, but if all you have are assertions, then I'll more than likely have to pass. But I'll still take a look later.
The physiological mechanisms that science says account for the visions is only theory, not provable facts. What mechanisms would be able to explain a blind person being able to see while unconscious and out of body. That is on the video.
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Old 07-24-2008, 10:10 PM   #54
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OK, I take it that you don't think that the real world "exists" separate from our view of it? So what? Whether it "exists" or not, it exhibits persistence and uniformity that can be measured, tested, probed, and prodded. What else is required?

Seriously, do you think it's not possible to know anything? That my mind is the only thing I can ever be sure is "real", and so examining the universe is a waste of time?
You are your mind. Yes, the only thing that is real is you.
subjective idealism (SI) is not solipsism. it does not deny the reality of material objects and it does not deny the reality of an other-than-self or an external world. in fact, it would have to maintain that solipsism narrowly construed is totally indefensible or even incoherent since any possible experience of a self can only be had in conjunction with experiences of things that are not self. put another way, solipsism requires that you see/feel things that you rightly attribute to being your body or as under own control without also experiencing things that you do not attribute to your body or out of your control. but none of us ever do this and it seems likely that we couldn't do this... that there could be no concept of self without a concept of other.

the only distinction that SI has to make is between the sort of knowledge that we have when we have immediate and direct awareness of our own current experience, and the sort of knowledge that we have when we conjecture or inquire about how our anticipated future experience might turn out.

http://www.google.com/search?hl=en&r...ctive+idealism

one view that is closely connected to subjective idealism but which connection i think is not usually pointed out is anything along the lines of Leibnizian monadism.
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Old 07-25-2008, 06:47 AM   #55
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You are your mind. Yes, the only thing that is real is you.
subjective idealism (SI) is not solipsism. it does not deny the reality of material objects and it does not deny the reality of an other-than-self or an external world. in fact, it would have to maintain that solipsism narrowly construed is totally indefensible or even incoherent since any possible experience of a self can only be had in conjunction with experiences of things that are not self. put another way, solipsism requires that you see/feel things that you rightly attribute to being your body or as under own control without also experiencing things that you do not attribute to your body or out of your control. but none of us ever do this and it seems likely that we couldn't do this... that there could be no concept of self without a concept of other.

the only distinction that SI has to make is between the sort of knowledge that we have when we have immediate and direct awareness of our own current experience, and the sort of knowledge that we have when we conjecture or inquire about how our anticipated future experience might turn out.

http://www.google.com/search?hl=en&r...ctive+idealism

one view that is closely connected to subjective idealism but which connection i think is not usually pointed out is anything along the lines of Leibnizian monadism.
You can only understand who you are through feelings. There are places the intellect is inferior. I took philosophy as a minor in school, but found that naming something is not understanding it.
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