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Originally Posted by Apostate1970
firstly, your claim is based on a distinction between primary and secondary qualities (with touch/extension vs. color as paradigm cases but pressure vs. pain sensation could be another case, as could many others). reasoning that since surface features of objects result in certain tactile qualia that they must result in certain visual qualia is unfounded.
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Well, since I didn't do that, I'm at a loss as to why it's relevant.
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similarly for reasoning that since our fingers must recognize knives as sharp they must recognize knives as painful... in fact, in this latter case, we know it to be false... as with local anesthetics.
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Irrelevant, I never said anything about pain.
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moreover, your example would only answer why pillows can't feel like knives and wouldn't answer why pillows or knives or anything else have any feel at all, sharp or painful or anything.
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Well, the thing is, we know the knife imparts information to your brain whether you're a p-zombie or not, because the body responds to it the same either way. The example is designed to demonstrate that that information is necessarily relevant to the qualia. Once we admit this, the only open question is how deep down into the regress of explanations that relevance goes. If it goes all the way down, there is no hard problem, because in that case, the information processing (which nobody disputes the existence of) turns out to be identical to the qualia of the experience. To say that the zombie processes the information from the knife in the same way as the sentient human does is the same thing as saying that it is not a zombie at all. If this turns out to be the case, p-zombies aren't just unlikely, they're logically impossible. And if p-zombies are logically impossible, then it follows that there is no explanatory gap and no hard problem.
So, the conclusion is that we must consider the possibility that p-zombies are necessarily nonexistent, which is the same thing as saying that there is no hard problem. We just need more information, which is why it is not proven yet, but the point is that you can't
disprove it yet either, and thus there is no basis for asserting that there is a hard problem.
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personally, i think that the entire primary/secondary distinction needs to be deflated because it rests on nothing more than the fact that some qualities get cross-modally confirmed and others do not. in other words, the only "inconsistency" in feeling a knife as pillowlike and not as knifelike arises from the discrepancy between seeing the knife on only one part of my hand and feeling something over more of my hand.
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No, it arises from the pillow
being in contact with more of your hand, which is stipulated. Whether you see it or not is irrelevant; the example works exactly the same with a blind man.
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but how is this an inconsistency? it is certainly unexpected and abnormal, but is no inconsistency anymore than, say, seeing our hand in a fire and feeling no pain.
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If your hand is destroyed by fire and you feel no change, that seems to mean you weren't feeling your hand in the first place. It's the difference between sensing and hallucinating that is key here. Returning to the knife example--the question is whether the information that comes from physical contact with the knife is sufficient to determine a particular set of qualia, given a particular sentient being with which it comes in contact. This requires that the information from the knife actually gets through to the brain, which is another way of saying that the knife is sensed accurately.
Sure, there is no logical conflict between cutting your hand with a knife and feeling a soft pillow on it at the same time, but if this happens, you're not really sensing the knife. The qualia are so disconnected to the outside world that they almost aren't related to the knife at all. E.g. the knife is going into your skin, but you're not feeling anything go in; instead, you're feeling a soft surface pressing against a relatively large area of your hand. The sensation of a soft pillow is inconsistent with the behavior of the knife. There appears to be a discrepancy between accurately processing the information imparted by sharp or hard objects and the generation of soft qualia.
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it is not enough to say that there is indeed a brute fact that connects certain wavelengths with the red quale or whatever, because the hard problem would then just be the problem of why this fact is brute in ways that others are not.
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This doesn't make any sense to me. The relevant definition of a brute fact is that it has no explanation; it simply is. Trying to explain a brute fact's "bruteness" would be pointless.
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in hundreds of years no one has shed the slightest hint of light on this or even gotten the foggiest notion of how they could go about finding out. they're not even able to form any sort of testable hypothesis for such a connection... they're utterly groping in the dark. nowhere else in the sciences are scientists confronted with such a complete incapacity to even begin an investigation.
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Well, if you're saying that scientists aren't investigating the problems of consciousness, that's just ridiculous. It sounds like you've assumed your conclusion again; of course, scientists working on the easy problems is not even approaching the problem if the problem is hard. But of course many of them do not believe there is a hard problem; they think they are on the track to explaining consciousness because they expect that all the problems are "easy".
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it is in this negative sense that epiphenomenalism is scientifically supported. but really, we do not need to await the findings of those groping in the dark, because it is proven to anyone that does in fact have personal experience that there can be no reduction... their experience itself is all the evidence they need, and it it not a mere "intuition" but is evidence of the most direct possible sort. that brings us to the second point...
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This is a really bizarre claim which I think I've seen before; it seems to suggest that, say, Daniel Dennett
doesn't have first-person experiences, because if he did, he'd agree with you. Which is doubly absurd when you throw in epiphenomenalism because, if epiphenomenalism is true, experiential evidence has no effect on what happens in someone's brain anyway. The idea that you do things because of what you experience is an illusion in that case. You do things because of blind mechanistic forces; the evidence is qualitative and thus has no power to affect anything physical, so having experiences couldn't possibly make any difference in how you think.