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Old 04-27-2006, 10:14 AM   #11
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Originally Posted by FreezBee
I'm sure you can back this up with evidence?
You can read his thread here:

Jesus vs. Archelaus
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Old 04-28-2006, 12:34 AM   #12
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What has an eclipse to do with it? By definition, there can't be an eclipse on Good Friday.
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Old 04-28-2006, 01:37 AM   #13
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IIRC the Talmudic Toledot Yeshu is also set during the times of Alexander Iannaeus. But it is generally considered a very late and dubious source, anyway.
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Old 04-28-2006, 02:37 AM   #14
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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
I think that the acceptance of the early 1st century is largely anchored in the TF and Tacitus' references to Pilate, is it not?

When did crucifixion first become practiced in Judea?
There are other reasons for assuming that Jesus is early first century without the TF or Tacitus, the first which is probably interpolated, and the second seems to be based on hearsay.
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Old 04-28-2006, 02:46 AM   #15
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Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
There are other reasons for assuming that Jesus is early first century without the TF or Tacitus, the first which is probably interpolated, and the second seems to be based on hearsay.
Hi Chris, could you list some of these 'other reasons', please?


More generally: would moving Jesus (whether HJ or MJ) further back in time help with respect to the other 'copycat' gods/sons of gods (who had managed to die by being speared whilst stuck to a piece of wood, etc.) knocking about at the time at that end of the Med?
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Old 04-28-2006, 04:58 AM   #16
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Hello luxie,

There are several reasons for accepting an early first century Jesus instead of an earlier one. The first is the Jesus movement is mid-first century. Paul speaks of the founders of Christianity as people he knows, and we cannot push Paul further back than the mid-first century.

Second of all, that Jesus was mid-first century is accounted for by early traditions of John the Baptist, whom Josephus puts in the early first century, and the later associations of Pilate and Herod. Even if Pilate wasn't personally responsible for crucifying Jesus, that he was later associated by at least Mark if not early seems to give a thumbs up to that time frame.

Finally, the Jesus story, cutting off the gospel innovations, seems to best corroborate the time he supposedly lived in, especially Q. It wouldn't make much sense later, nor would it earlier.

Chris
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Old 04-28-2006, 07:09 AM   #17
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Paul speaks of the founders of Christianity as people he knows, and we cannot push Paul further back than the mid-first century.
What are the exact words that Paul uses to identify the Founders and who they were?
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Old 04-28-2006, 11:41 AM   #18
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The Armenian reference places the end of Thallus' "brief compendium" at the 167th Olympiad (which spans 112-109 BC). This would remain uncontested if it were not for a single reference to Thallus regarding an event long after that time: namely, the darkness at the death of Christ. Since this event must have occurred in the 1st century AD, and no doubt sometime between 28 and 38 AD, there are two possibilities: either the Armenian text is referring to a different work, or the date has been corrupted.

From Carrier above.

Is there not a third possibility? Thallus was referring to the 167 th Olympiad and the "Christ" was the Teacher of Righteousness (Ellegard). What eclipses have we around 110 BCE?

Why do we assume Jesus lived approx 0 - 40 CE? How many other writers have we tried to fit their comments into an assumed timeframe?
?

Has Ellegard been dumped as off the wall? Who has read him? And we might have corroboration from this Thallus reference? What other author's comments do not fit the assumed timeline?
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Old 04-28-2006, 12:07 PM   #19
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Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Paul speaks of the founders of Christianity as people he knows, and we cannot push Paul further back than the mid-first century.
Why should we believe that Paul has anything to do with Jesus?
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Old 04-28-2006, 01:49 PM   #20
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Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Hello luxie,

There are several reasons for accepting an early first century Jesus instead of an earlier one. The first is the Jesus movement is mid-first century. Paul speaks of the founders of Christianity as people he knows, and we cannot push Paul further back than the mid-first century.
But I keep hearing 'liberal' christians calling Paul a 'ding-a-ling', and I find it hard not to agree with them even though I also understand the argument that Paul was the 'first christian'. Thus Paul is not the most trustworthy of sources to me - he seems to me to have felt he had a license to fib and make things up on the hoof.
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Second of all, that Jesus was mid-first century is accounted for by early traditions of John the Baptist, whom Josephus puts in the early first century, and the later associations of Pilate and Herod. Even if Pilate wasn't personally responsible for crucifying Jesus, that he was later associated by at least Mark if not early seems to give a thumbs up to that time frame.
But if the stories of this Jesus were floating around as general folktales/folklore, isn't John the Baptist exactly the sort of figure people would include in the story?
With Jesus we seem to keep switching back and forth between people obviously knowing that he was the chosen one and other people who had no clue who he was.
Jesus is born in a manger - but worshipped by kings - which seems to be forgotten when he goes to the temple - etc. And then Jesus meets the famous Jonh the Baptist and - hey presto - John declares himself not worthy - then Jesus goes off and people start saying 'who is this man?'

I wish the gospel writers had just made up their minds as to whether Jesus was recognisably different or not: instead it looks like they portrayed Jesus to be anonymous or recognisable depending on whether it fits the story. To me it would be prefectly credible for the references to John the Baptist to be additions of the order of "Oh, so did this Jesus of yours ever meet the famous John the Baptist then?" - "Why yes! Not only did he meet him, but ... blah blah".

If we had independent writings from JtB - or if his followers (I forget their name) believed their own john/jesus stories - then I would reconsider, but to me the fact that christians claim to be able to co-op JtB is no different to people co-oping Richard the Lionheart into stories about Robin Hood.
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Finally, the Jesus story, cutting off the gospel innovations, seems to best corroborate the time he supposedly lived in, especially Q. It wouldn't make much sense later, nor would it earlier.

Chris
Not quite sure what this is actually referring to. Perhaps it is just random chance as to which time period ended up as the fixed standard to which the heavily-vetted stories were bent to fit?
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