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03-05-2007, 10:19 PM | #41 | |
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Mark has been called beads on a string or some such. Most scholars think it consists, largely of movable pericops with artificial links. This does not remove the possibility or some very ordered segments (e.g. possibly the intercalations?) or a general order or a pre-Markan PN (possibly your citation?) Most scholars would probably view Mt and Lk with a tighter order than Mark. Part of it is that it omits material as well.
I argued otherwise at one time, but Mark, also, is not anti-Petrine and anti-apostolic in my mind. This would make Jesus out to have failed in his task of choosing special apostles. I lean more towards the Gundry approach. Hidden meanings, messianic secrets, and anti-apostolic tendencies are all fun to toy with but ultimately they fail in that they move from uncertainty to certainty whereas the other side starts from certainity (Mark's portrayal of Jesus). We also kjnow from Paul's contemporary primary data that Mark is not hiding that Jesus' original followers did not believe in his resurrection or some such... The directional grain of your argument is up hill, about an 89.9 degree hill. Vinnie Quote:
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03-05-2007, 10:27 PM | #42 |
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...by responses that did not warrent much response.
It was a drove by, though assuredly, I missed some good ones. I have an actual life though (f/t school, f/t work, f/t girlfriend and family) and it restricts me from fully responding to all posts in threads, or even reading them all, especially when they start approaching 100 posts and the initial content is unstimulating... Am I supposed to entertain an assertion's battle? Acts makes it all up. No it didn't. Yes it did. No it didn't. Vork at least presented some interesting possibilities contra Papias but even if Acts was mostly fictinal, this would still not render daughters of Philip non-historical. A lack of evidence indicates exactly that, a lack of evidence, not non-existence. Just as a fictional acts does not render Peter non-historical or Paul or a ton of other names. Other than that, not much else. Though I do owe Amaleq a response somewhere and Criddle one on Ignatius...... Though all the comments on Judas were remedial.... Vinnie |
03-06-2007, 07:50 AM | #43 | |
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JW: I love a good gag. Congratulations. Since you agree with me though that "Mark" is largely superstitious nonsense I don't have much interest in arguing about it with you. Your General arguments above don't have much weight against the Specifics I've indicated showing that "Mark" is primarily a snuff film of Peter's Witness. And yes you are in line with mainstream Christian Bible scholarship that trys to Defend based on what's not in "Mark" and denies/discounts what's in "Mark". The difficulty is trying to consider "Mark" by itself without subsequent Orthodox Christianity, just like its original audience would have. "Mark" has deliberately excorcised most of Q from his Narrative because he only needed to depict Jesus as Teaching in general for the plot. Specific teaching is all about Jesus. That Papias' was referring to such a deliberate work that exorcised Q is comical. It's exponentially more likely that the attribution of "Mark" is backwards. There was absolutely nothing Internal about "Mark" that was indicative of "Mark"/Peter authorship. No autograph, no Explicit identification and no good Implications. Orthodox Christianity and Irenaeus attributed this Gospel to "Mark"/Peter souly because of what Papias wrote. That Irenaeus/Eusebius did not record much else from Papias tells us that it was full of other Legends that were problems for Orthodox Christianity. Joseph http://www.errancywiki.com/index.php/Main_Page |
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03-06-2007, 01:26 PM | #44 | ||
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For the record, I don't think Mark was slandering Peter. The incident at C-P strikes me as genuine tradition, as J's calling Peter "Satan" has all the marks of a very human frustration, and makes for poor doxology. I believe Peter showed weakness in Jerusalem, and the legend of his denials (and J.s prediction of them) grew out of that before Mark put it down. Jiri |
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03-06-2007, 01:54 PM | #45 | |
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Now, we certainly know which church based its authority on apostolic succession. It was the church at Rome. So it seems likely that GMark was produced by another community that didn't like the Roman know-it-alls lording it over them. They might even had been, shhh! heretics!. Omigod no! This is a job for Papias! here he comes to save the day! Jake Jones IV |
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03-06-2007, 02:06 PM | #46 |
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03-06-2007, 03:22 PM | #47 | |
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I doubt that there was anything like a "church of Rome" (or "Alexandria", or "Ephesus", or "Antioch") in operation at the time "Mark" wrote, i.e. 66-70 CE. Mark is a Paulinist, i.e. the theology of the Cross is firmly planted in his gospel, and actually, as Gundry says, apologizes for it. Unlike Paul, who radically rejected the claims of an earthly Jesus' as "power", Mark invests the wandering prophetic figure with supernatural attributes, much as the cultic Petrine (or, the disciples',) church did. But theologically he stays with Paul who cursed the disciples in Galatians as deniers of the Cross (as a messianic attribute) and elsewhere as preachers of different Jesus and believers in a different "resurrection" (actually the one HJ preached). That rift still exists in Mark and projects in his portrayal of the disciples. The authority of apostolic succession and something like real harmony in the proto-orthodox church would have been ahead probably 10-20 years after the fall of Jerusalem. Jiri |
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03-06-2007, 06:38 PM | #48 | |
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Stephen |
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03-06-2007, 06:48 PM | #49 | |
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In particular, the audience must have expected and/or already believed that the promise of 16:7 ("tell his disciples and Peter that he is going ahead to Galilee; there you will see him, just as he told you") was fulfilled. This promise was then fulfilled despite the failure of the women to say anything to anyone (v. 8). I think this has the effect of rehabilitating the male disciples (who meet Jesus in Galilee) at the expense of the women. On the other hand, if Mark had originally continued past 16:8, how Mark actually ended may or may not have needed that extratextual expectation. But that's hard to tell without the original ending. I haven't been able to figure out, however, how to understand the 16:8 ending without a critical extratextual expectation. Stephen |
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03-07-2007, 06:23 AM | #50 | |
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I recently read him, and there are some good points, but a lot of the ancient suspended endings he adduces seem very, very different than what we find in Mark. Maybe I am just locked in to an old way of thinking (although I was once convinced Mark ended at 16.8), but I still have a hard time imagining that 16.8 was the intended ending of this gospel. Ben. |
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