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#1 |
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Over the line, Boro. Vork
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#2 | |
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#3 |
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well, seeing Christians etc depend on their myth being actually historical, and the actuality of the Resurrection of Jesus Christ, then ask them 'so where is the actual historical evidence of Jesus ever having existed?'
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didn't understnad that sentence chili. i SENSe what you mean is that the 'historical truth' is writ in the myth of it?
but i am saying that there actually exists no physical historical evidence in the person called Jesus of Nazareth, hence Actual 'physical' Resurrection |
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#7 | |
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2. wouldn't you say it's good for x-xians to be able to defend themselves? spin |
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#8 | |
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It's like a big acid trip, lulay, except that this one is for keeps. See the problem? The reality of the myth cannot be found in history but is attached to history because there are no conventional words possible to describe a non-rational event. I should add that his disciples were his strongholds and it takes 12 of these to get into heaven. I should also add that these 12 must be for real and not just an idol = no other gods). |
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#9 |
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Since this is on a bible thread, here's a question I asked to a believer when he was expounding on the NT. He looked at me like I had two heads, but I think it's a legitimate question. If the bible is truly of divine, and not human origin, why do we need translations at all? Why has it not supernaturally appeared, in perfect form, in every language of the world? And even if you claim that God has (for some inexplicable reason) chosen to use human translators, why would he allow his divine word to have so many conflicting and contradictory versions? Why wouldn't God use his supernatural power to insure that his word was perfectly clear and unambiguous to everyone in the world?
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