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Old 02-10-2009, 12:45 PM   #11
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The New Testament (and Bible really as a whole) wasn't canonized until a council that I forget the name of around 300 or 400 AD, if I recall correctly.
This is not accurate. No single council (or even series of councils) created the canon. The councils more or less confirmed various versions of a growing consensus. This growing consensus was clear since late century II on the four gospels, the Acts, and the Pauline epistles (though Hebrews was in an ambiguous position), fuzzy on the catholic epistles, and decidedly unclear on Revelation (even well into the medieval period) and several other texts that are no longer considered in most circles.

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Old 02-10-2009, 01:34 PM   #12
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This is not accurate. No single council (or even series of councils) created the canon. The councils more or less confirmed various versions of a growing consensus. This growing consensus was clear since late century II on the four gospels, the Acts, and the Pauline epistles (though Hebrews was in an ambiguous position), fuzzy on the catholic epistles, and decidedly unclear on Revelation (even well into the medieval period) and several other texts that are no longer considered in most circles.

Ben.
Although I agree with the substance of this, there were provincial synods in North Africa in 393 397 and 419 which laid down explicitly the NT canon for the purpose of preventing non-Scriptural texts from being read in Church.

The Priscillianist controversy made a sharp division between canonical and non-canonical works particularly important for the Latin church at this time.

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Old 02-10-2009, 03:19 PM   #13
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Among conservative Christians that follow the 'sola scriptura' concept there are very well defined rules of Biblical interpretation that essentially cause all the major doctrines to be agreed upon.
Not in my experience, and my experience includes having been one of those conservative Christians.

I don't disagree that there is a set of doctrines that has a broad consensus among conservative Christians, but there is practically nothing that at least a few of them don't dispute.
Yes, I can see where I am probably wrong on this broad statement. Indeed, I do not have a broad enough base of experience and knowledge to make such a statement. I once again am suffering from dipstick-itis - the belief that one's experiences and knowledge is typical of all experience and knowledge (more directly put: that you believe you are the dipstick of humanity).

So, let me revise my statement. The conservative, calvinist denominations I am aware of, that practice 'sola scriptura' do have a rigorous set of hermeneutical rules they follow for their basic scriptural interpretation.

The problem with the term 'conservative Christian' is that it is a broad term that invokes very different ideas depending on who you talk to...
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Old 02-10-2009, 03:31 PM   #14
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Because words can have more than one meaning, and thus sentences can be open to interpretation, it is logically impossible that anything written down in a human language can be literal truth.

Not to mention all the translating that must have gone on with a book like the Bible.
This is why even those following 'Sola Scriptura' tend to believe that confirmation and/or illumination from the Holy Spirit of God is required to get at the truth of God in the scriptures (see the first article of the Westminster Confession as a prime example)

As far as literal goes, there is a saying on what it means for the Bible to be taken literally in interpretation: "When the plain sense makes common sense, seek no other sense, less you end up with nonsense."

Seeking the literal sense is more rightly contrasted with seeking an allegorical interpretation of scripture than what I believe you might be referring to - but please, feel free to elaborate...
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Old 02-10-2009, 03:50 PM   #15
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Because words can have more than one meaning, and thus sentences can be open to interpretation, it is logically impossible that anything written down in a human language can be literal truth.

Not to mention all the translating that must have gone on with a book like the Bible.
This is why even those following 'Sola Scriptura' tend to believe that confirmation and/or illumination from the Holy Spirit of God is required to get at the truth of God in the scriptures (see the first article of the Westminster Confession as a prime example)
Then shouldn't all readings, if guided by the holy spirit, lead to the same interpretation?
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Old 02-11-2009, 07:44 AM   #16
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The problem with the term 'conservative Christian' is that it is a broad term that invokes very different ideas depending on who you talk to...
Any attempt to taxonomize Christianity is a recipe for madness
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Old 02-11-2009, 08:04 AM   #17
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This is not accurate. No single council (or even series of councils) created the canon. The councils more or less confirmed various versions of a growing consensus. This growing consensus was clear since late century II on the four gospels, the Acts, and the Pauline epistles (though Hebrews was in an ambiguous position), fuzzy on the catholic epistles, and decidedly unclear on Revelation (even well into the medieval period) and several other texts that are no longer considered in most circles.

Ben.
Although I agree with the substance of this, there were provincial synods in North Africa in 393 397 and 419 which laid down explicitly the NT canon for the purpose of preventing non-Scriptural texts from being read in Church.

The Priscillianist controversy made a sharp division between canonical and non-canonical works particularly important for the Latin church at this time.
This is true, but we need to recall that these synods were provincial, and so not binding on anyone outside that area.

All the best,

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Old 02-11-2009, 08:06 AM   #18
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Because words can have more than one meaning, and thus sentences can be open to interpretation, it is logically impossible that anything written down in a human language can be literal truth.
This involves setting the claim of 'literal' so high that no book ever written could fulfil it. Since Christians do not set it in such terms, this would seem to be a strawman.
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Old 02-11-2009, 08:55 AM   #19
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This involves setting the claim of 'literal' so high that no book ever written could fulfil it. Since Christians do not set it in such terms, this would seem to be a strawman.
Then what do Christians mean when they say it is "literal" truth? How do they define "literal"?
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Old 02-11-2009, 02:13 PM   #20
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This involves setting the claim of 'literal' so high that no book ever written could fulfil it. Since Christians do not set it in such terms, this would seem to be a strawman.
Then what do Christians mean when they say it is "literal" truth? How do they define "literal"?
Which Christians do you mean ?

This is a serious question. IIUC even very conservative Christian groups (when speaking formally and precisely) are cautious about using "literal" in this context because it can set up a strawman irrelevant to the real issues.

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