Freethought & Rationalism ArchiveThe archives are read only. |
10-27-2010, 12:59 PM | #11 |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Mar 2005
Location: MidWest
Posts: 1,894
|
Regardless if it existed or not, the theory is based on the fact that a big chunk of the text between Luke and Matt is similar enough to make them think they used a second source. Or is it that they need to use the idea of a second source because of the differences between the material the are trying to compare? I haven't looked into how similar the Q material is between the two and don't really know why they don't think one copied the other.
|
10-28-2010, 07:37 AM | #12 | |||||
Veteran Member
Join Date: Aug 2004
Location: Orlando
Posts: 2,014
|
Simon's Terrific Answer to Jesus' Multiple Choice Quiz
Hi Elijah,
Thanks for the response. Perhaps this will help, of the 110 references to the term "son of man" in the Old Testament, 94 of them are in the book of Ezekiel. Only one person in the Old Testament is repeatedly addressed and referred to as "son of man" - Ezekiel. This week I had prepared three different multiple choice tests for my 120 students. When I came across the statement in Matthew: Quote:
Imagine these two quiz questions: 1) People say that "Frankenstein" was written by A) Mary Shelley, B) Percy Shelley, C) Lord Byron and D) one of their friends. Who do you think wrote the novel "Waverley"? 2) 1) People say that "Frankenstein" was written by A) Mary Shelley, B) Percy Shelley, C) Lord Byron and D) one of their friends. Who do you think wrote "Frankenstein". The number one form makes no sense. There is no real connection between the choices and the question. Why introduce the four possibilities for the Mary Shelley novel, if you are going to ask about the Walter Scott novel. In the same way the Matthew text as is makes no sense. There is no real connection between the four choices presented by the "Who do people say the son of man is?" question and the "Who do you say I am?" question. Why introduce the "son of man" question and give four choices, if you not going to answer the question and are going to ask a question about Jesus instead? If this was the actual form that the writer of Matthew wrote, raising significant questions, giving choices and then starting a new question without answering the first one, we would consider him crazy. The number two form makes sense. The first question is related to the second question in a simple, clear, normal and logical fashion. In Matthew's text, only if the second question was "Who do you say he is?" would it be related to the question "Who do people say the son of man is?" in a simple, clear, normal and logical fashion. Now, assuming the number two form is correct, let us say that someone answered, the question "Who wrote Frankenstein?" with the fourth choice, one of their friends. This could be right, but it would not be impressive. After all, you could have been guessing. You have a 25% chance of being right. I would not respond enthusiastically by saying something like, "Blessed are you, ______ For flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my Father who is in heaven." But let us say, your answer was "Leigh Hunt". Leigh Hurt was a poet friend of Mary Shelley an Percy Shelley. They might of had a Ménage à trois. After Percy Shelley's death, Leigh Hunt was the man who handed Percy Shelley's heart to Mary. This is not common knowledge and only someone who had really studied and researched the story of the Mary Shelley and "Frankenstein" could have known this. It might really shock me that you knew this. I might exclaim (assuming I was a religious person) ""Blessed are you, ______ For flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my Father who is in heaven. And I tell you, you are a rock, and on this rock I will build my church," or (assuming I was not a religious person) "Wow, you're really good, I'm going to let you teach the class from now on." The enthusiastic response of Jesus in the Matthew text only makes sense if Simon had hit the nail on the head and had identified not only Jesus as the son of God, but the exact prophet who was the son of God. If any other prophet had been named, the author would have had to stop to explain why it was correct. Only the answer "Ezekiel" would have been clear enough to every Jew who had read the Hebrew Scriptures. The author would not have had to explain why Ezekiel was the "son of man," as the Hebrew Scriptures directly calls him the "son of man." Regarding the question, "Do you think they are suggesting that it’s Ezekiel resurrected, reincarnated or just Jesus is a prophet of his type/spirit?" I would tend to think that Matthew was saying that Jesus was Ezekiel resurrected as resurrection was a concept associated with Ezekiel: Quote:
Philosopher Jay Quote:
|
|||||
10-28-2010, 09:17 AM | #13 | |||
Veteran Member
Join Date: Jul 2004
Location: Dancing
Posts: 9,940
|
Quote:
Quote:
|
|||
10-28-2010, 09:52 AM | #14 |
Senior Member
Join Date: Nov 2004
Location: Dallas Texas
Posts: 758
|
Elijah:
I am not arguing against the existence of Q. I think it a reasonable theory to account for observed instances in which Matthew and Luke agree but Mark is silent. I was suggesting that the existence of Q is not a unanimous opinion, nothing more. Steve |
10-28-2010, 11:45 AM | #15 | ||
Veteran Member
Join Date: Mar 2005
Location: MidWest
Posts: 1,894
|
If it was multiple choice and the choices are already given by masses of people then the choice that Peter makes is no big deal because he is just choosing one of the popular opinions of who Jesus is. It’s only because he chooses one of the options that others aren’t saying that he gets recorded down as significant in the text. This works in Mathew because in Mark and John Peter is already told Jesus is the messiah by John making it not a revelation.
Just like how Paul emphasized his coming to Christ by revelation instead of human conversion, it’s because there was value seen in coming to conclusions on your own intellect vs. following along with your group’s thinking. The only thing that is really confusing is how he (the writer) uses “Son of Man” instead of “I am” in the beginning because it looks like two questions. Why they did this is a shoulder-shrugger to me but the question comes up enough other times in the synoptics that it should seem like something that particular writer was trying to articulate there, not an unhidden marker for what the story was originally. Luke 9:7 and Mark 6:14 also lay out the same formula of who is this guy doing miracles. JtB, Elijah or one of the other prophets. Peter gets the question right that it’s the messiah and not any of those, which is the main point of the story that is presented. Think of the multiple choice quiz as happening verbally aloud in your classroom and you point to a picture and go who is this and some of your class shouts “Bob” and another side shouts no it’s “Tom” and some more go nope it’s “Sam” but when you ask a particular student they don’t choose any answers they hear but answer it correctly without being told who it was by the room. That kid would get the gold star but if he chooses one of the other things the kids say it’s not as impressive which is probably why Matthew decided not to have JTB tell Peter that Jesus was the messiah because it just make him look like a follower of JTB and not a true convert (by faith) to Jesus. I have no argument in saying Ezekiel popularized the term “son of man” but it gets used as a title for the messiah, I think. Now when this started or how accurate it is, I don’t know. But thinking “son of man” isn’t a title of a person they were expecting to help them but the title of the specific person (Ezekiel) would need to be supported. It’s possible they were expecting him because they were similarly waiting on Elijah to return but you need something more than using the title for Jesus to say it was actually Ezekiel. You need someone saying “son of man” in this time is Ezekiel actually. The parable use and shepherd comparison just seem too common place to try to say these are indicators of this individual specifically. Quote:
|
||
10-28-2010, 09:54 PM | #16 |
Contributor
Join Date: Mar 2004
Location: Dallas, TX
Posts: 11,525
|
Very interesting Jay! I've read that passage many times and in my mind, Jesus=son of man=Christ is so ingrained that I never saw the discontinuity.
That said, what if it was similarly ingrained by the author of Matthew? |
10-30-2010, 08:16 AM | #17 | |||||||||
Veteran Member
Join Date: Aug 2004
Location: Orlando
Posts: 2,014
|
Ezekiel 2:3 Son of man, I am sending you to the Israelites, A Rebellious Nation
Hi spamandham,
Thanks for the comment and question. To review, I started with the idea that people were so accustomed to seeing Harold Lloyd on a big screen with glasses, that when he stood without glasses in front of the the people who had just seen him on a big screen with glasses, they did not recognize him. Like Lloyd, I think that people are so accustomed to hearing and thinking of Jesus as the "Son of God," that they are unable to see the text which mainly labels him the "Son of Man". The "Son of Man" when used directly in the Old Testament meant the prophet Ezekiel. There is no reason to believe it does not mean Ezekiel in certain cases in the New Testament. I think I can refine my reconstruction of the questions and answers in the recognition sequence: Matthew: Quote:
Mark: Quote:
Matthew Q and A: Quote:
Quote:
As noted, the logical answer would not be the Christ, as it is not one of the answers given in the questions. The logical answer would be Ezekiel because he is one of the prophets and he is the only one referred to the son of man. Thus we can reconstruct Matthew as originally having these Q and A: Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Mark cuts out the first two questions and answers. He only uses questions and answers three and four and changes "Eziekiel" to "Christ" Matthew Keeps the first Q and answer, but leaves out question and answers 2 and 3 and just uses 1 and 4 and changes "Eziekiel" to "Christ". The methodology that both are employing is too similar to be coincidental. They are both cutting down from a longer text (the longer TR text). They are just choosing different questions and answers to keep (Matthew keeps TR 1 and 4 and Mark keeps 3 and 4. Either Mark had seen what Matthew had done with the original text (the theoretical reconstruction) and decided to do something different or Matthew had seen what Mark had done with the original text and decided to do something different. One can see why Mark or Matthew would want to change "Ezekiel" to "Christ," but why ruin the much better rhetorical structure of the earlier longer version of the gospel? More later. Warmly, Jay Raskin |
|||||||||
10-31-2010, 12:58 PM | #18 | ||||||||
Veteran Member
Join Date: Aug 2004
Location: Orlando
Posts: 2,014
|
Hi All
In the previous post, I analyzed the contradictions between Mark and Matthew versions of the passage where Simon [Peter] identifies Jesus as the Christ or Son of God or Son of Man. [Mt 16:13-22 and Mk 8:27-33]. I concluded that they had both been cut from a fuller, rhetorically more perfect, gospel. I think this would agree with Stephan Huller's and David Trobisch's ideas as expressed in post #6557985 / #4. Conclusions - The following is just provisional. There is no evidence whatever of the set of four Gospels before Irenaeus. There were several Gospels, but no person or group used a set of four with equal authority. Geographical distribution is often mentioned in the textbooks, but several scholars have pointed out that there is no evidence for this. The evidence confirms a picture of a set of four shortened Gospels made by abridging the books MADE TO BE ASSOCIATED AS IF WITH a sect (which means careful selection of what to leave out). The ending of John was adjusted so as to make it read like the conclusion to the set of four. The set of four was probably published in Rome in about 170 CE It was in Greek and only in Greek. Translations into other languages were delayed for reasons uncertain. The older long single Latin Gospel, in the edition of the Diatessaron and probably also in an edition like the one used by Justin, was used for all preaching and teaching in Latin and for all liturgical purposes in Latin. Serious books were written in Greek in Latin-speaking areas and these quoted the Fourfold Gospel. No-one writing in Latin used the set of four before Tertullian, and he read them in Greek and did his own translating as needed. There was no use at all for any purpose of the set of four in areas where the language was Aramaic or Armenian or Georgian for centuries afterwards. (I don’t know yet about areas where Ethiopic or Coptic or Arabic or Gothic were used. However, the indications are that the pre-Islamic Arabic Gospel was a single book). Looking at the theoretical reconstruction we can see what was left out and changed: TRQ1: "Who do men say that the Son of man is?" TRA1: "John the Baptist, others say Elijah, or one of the prophets." TRQ2: "But who do you say that he is?" TRA2: "He is Ezekiel (Crist). TRQ3: "Who do men say that I am? TRA3: "John the Baptist; and others say, Elijah; and others one of the prophets." TRQ4: "But who do you say that I am?" TRA4: You are Ezekiel. (Christ) TRQ2 and TRA2 ("But who do you say that he is?" and "He is Eziekiel.)" is left out of Mark and Matthew, and since Luke just copies Mark, it is missing from all of the synoptics. Actually we should acknowledge that we cannot be sure when the term "Christ" replaced the term "Ezekiel" in the passage. It is probable that the text that the synoptic writer/s cut from contained the word "Christ," instead of "Ezekiel." What we can be sure of is that since "Ezekiel" is consistently referred to as the Son of Man, he would have been one of the choices in any Jewish multiple choice quiz on "Who is the Son of Man?" Now, I have given about 300 multiple choice quizzes in my 15 years of teaching. One thing I know is that one starts with the correct answer and then figures out other false answers which might fool inattentive or completely non-studious students. For example, in asking a question to an introductory class on Humanities, I might ask which ancient beautiful woman was blamed for the Trojan War? 1) Helen, 2) Cleopatra 3) Nefertiti or 4) Clytemnestra What I am not going to list as an answer is 1) Helen, 2) Cleopatra, 3) Nefertiti 4) one of the ancient beautiful women. Therefore the last choice in the Son of Man question -- "one of the prophets" has to be suspect. It is too general an answer and would not help us to solve the problem. It does not make sense to ask who is the Son of Man and to answer vaguely "one of the prophets." It would be like asking "Who is the greatest home-run hitter of all time?" and answering vaguely, "One of the major league players." That would leave us with just 1) John the Baptist, 2) Elijah and 3) Ezekiel in the original question. But there is another possibility. Note that MtQ1 has another choice: "Some say John the Baptist, others say Elijah, and others Jeremiah or one of the prophets." It seems clear that Jeremiah is an equally good choice as Elijah. Jeremiah, the weeping prophet, was considered "the suffering servant" whom Isaiah wrote about. (Isaiah 53.) I suggest that in the earliest text we had either four choices of named prophets for the Son of Man: 1) "John the Baptist," 2) "Elijah," 3) Jeremiah and 4) Ezekial At this point we have to bring in another text that is in a similar question and answer form as the one we have been examining: Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
Of cause this reconstruction of John equalling Elijah is found in Matthew and Mark: Quote:
Quote:
We can pause here for now. Warmly, Jay Raskin |
||||||||
11-02-2010, 03:38 PM | #19 | ||||||
Veteran Member
Join Date: Aug 2004
Location: Orlando
Posts: 2,014
|
The Evolution of a Multiple Choice Quiz Through Four Stages
Hi All,
I wanted to finish the concept in this thread that the Jesus Character is best identified as a textual development of three Old Testament prophets: Ezekiel, Jeremiah and Elijah. In the last post we looked at three multiple choice quizzes: 1) Matthew: Jesus' Who is the Son of Man/Who am I? Quiz 2) Mark/Luke: Jesus' Who am I? Quiz 3) Synoptic: King Herod's Who is John? Quiz There is one more quiz in the gospels that needs to be in the group. It is the John: Who is he? Quiz Quote:
The second question is "What do you say about yourself?" He answers with a quote from Isaiah that he is the voice of one crying in the wilderness. The one crying in the wilderness would be the Lord. This is made explicit in the book of Ezekiel. He asks the prophet Ezekiel to be his voice in Ezekiel 20. Quote:
I suggest that the text said Son of Man before Christ. Just as the Mark text erases the "Son of Man" question and both Mark and Matthew give a Christ answer, I would suspect that the "Son of Man" question and answer has been changed a "Christ" question and answer. The prophet "Elijah" is a stable element in all four quizzes. We may assume it was always there. "The prophet" has been substituted for "one of the prophets," or viser-versa. I think Jeremiah, mentioned in the Matthew multiple choice Quiz was also the third answer here. I think that the descriptions of both Elijah or Jeremiah could match John: Quote:
We can propose that originally we have a simple question about the "Son of Man" Who is the Son of Man? The three answers are 1) Elijah 2) Jeremiah and 3) Ezekiel. It is a schoolboy question that any Jewish boy who had read the Hebrew Scriptures should have been able to answer. The correct answer is the Son of Man is Ezekiel. The character of John was probably based originally on Ezekiel (the voice of one crying in the wilderness) but later, in debates over the character he was probably changed to fit Jeremiah and lastly Elijah. Thus the Quiz is probably originally directed by Jews towards the John character. Later the Quiz is changed and directed at Herod. Next the Quiz becomes a quiz given by Jesus to his disciples regarding the Son of Man. Finally, in its fourth incarnation, it becomes a quiz about Jesus himself. Warmly, Philosopher Jay Quote:
|
||||||
Thread Tools | Search this Thread |
|