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Old 10-04-2004, 01:01 PM   #101
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I realized while reading your post that you have never said that you accept any of the biblical accounts of God's actions as factual. If you translate liberally enough, then I suppose we have no real actions of God's to judge. We would still be left with inactions, though, and would be down to talking about the problem of evil, which I'm not wanting to get into here.

edit: This is not to say that with a more literal translation that inactions necessarily fall under the purview of apologetics of the problem of pain, as in the case of Japhtheth.
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Old 10-04-2004, 01:03 PM   #102
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Originally Posted by sourdough
since I never seen god ,I tend to agree

if God is good then bible must have been writen by some very evil people!
and is not a gods word as you claim
www.evilbible.com/

www.thewaronfaith.com/bible_quotes.htm
I think evilbible.com is dumber, and more ridiculous than SAB, and I never thought anything could be as bad as SAB. Thanks for proving that the makers of such sites are the most theologically ignorant people on Earth.
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Old 10-04-2004, 01:05 PM   #103
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Originally Posted by Crucifiction
How is that A Strawman? That isn't a Strawman. God himself proclaimed in the Bible that he "creates evil".
Use a lexicon to read the meaning of evil in that passage. Its not moral evil, its calamity.
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Old 10-04-2004, 01:55 PM   #104
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Here's an example that runs contrary to the notion of objective, universal morality.

http://www.iidb.org/vbb/showthread.php?t=100683

I'm sure the men in this society would be utterly morally repulsed at the way we let our women run about unfettered. I'm also sure they feel they are doing the Godly thing.
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Old 10-04-2004, 02:16 PM   #105
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Originally Posted by ten to the eleventh
Well, I can't agree with you on your claim about (all) atheists. I don't believe that I have a "spiritual certainty" that there is no God. Rather, I have a rational certainty (which, unlike "spiritual certainty", is always up for reasoned debate) that I do not have the evidence required for a rational belief in God. This is quite different from claiming to know that no god(s) exist. "Spiritual" evidence or knowledge are notoriously fickle constructs, with one's "knowledge" contradicting anothers, and no way to discern the right. As rational thought begins with axioms, the correctness of claims based on reason can be evaluated. "Spiritual" claims cannot be evaluated, only claimed, and believed or disbelieved. Therefore, I put no stock in them, as I put no stock in claims that cannot be evaluated critically.

This, of course, applies to universal truths. If you tell me that you love pistachio ice cream, an individual preference, I will tend to believe that you indeed love pistachio ice cream. This does not mean that I feel the same about your favorite frozen confection, or that I should. If you tell me that you have a spiritual knowledge of God's existence, and His absolute perfection and goodness, a universal concept, I may believe you are convicted thus, but I will not find reason in your conviction to believe the same.


I don't doubt that you think that. Reason, since the enlightenment, and especially because of the easily demonstrable success of reason's favorite child, science, has regained its former vaunted status, and no one would want to make a claim today without an appeal to it. But that hasn't always been so with Christianity. From its outset, Christianity, which was strongly influenced by Greek thought, was shaped by the ideas of Plato. Reason was derided, and spiritual authority was unquestionable. See the comments of Augustine, or Paul for that matter, on the subject. Even Martin Luther referred to reason as the "devil's whore."

Reasoning can be proper or improper. The beauty of it is that it is subject to real evaluation, unlike spiritual insights, so that all may consider its conclusions fairly. Reason may reinforce your conviction of God's goodness, but it may not be proper reasoning. To determine that, one must evaluate it without the condition that it is necessarily right, which would prevent real evaluation. If you begin from the perspective that God must always act morally, then you will only allow reasoning that yields God's goodness, and you will disallow any reasoning that questions it.

Ok, I was following you up to this last part. I understand what you are saying and I don't disagree with you, neccessarily. But are you suggesting that this tendency to 'disallow any reasoning that questions' God's inherent morality...is deliberate? Kind of the Christian equivalent of a frightened ostrich?


Quote:
I am not suggesting that we are evaluating whether or not God is essentially immoral. What I am suggesting for evaluation is that some of His actions might be immoral. You say that God is the source of morality. I would suggest that morality, then, is a creation of God's, and it exists as objective truth, in the same sense as earth, air, life, faith, etc. Morality is a measure of the goodness of actions, no? Then, we should be able to use the yardstick of this objective morality to measure any particular action of God's. If God creates rule 1, an inviolable objective measure, but then proceeds to violate rule 1, then can we not say that God has acted immorally?
Well, I see what you are getting at, but it's really more like the 'Mom Rule'.

Rule #1: Mom is always right.

Rule #2: In the event that Mom is ever wrong, refer back to Rule #1.




Quote:
One cannot claim that the morality of God's actions can be judged, but pre-determine the conclusion of any such judgement. That is not reasoning, that is adherence to dogma, or spiritual authority.
Ok. I have no problem with that. Because essentially, man is always the variable in these equations. God is constant.

Quote:
On the other hand, if the rules of morality do not apply to God, then we cannot say that God is a moral being. We cannot say that He is good any more than we can say that He is bad. He just IS, and He does what He wants, and His actions are not subject to moral review. See?

Yes, I do. But I say again that as the source of morality, God cannot be that which He is not. He cannot be immoral. He is what He is. Even in Scripture, that is how He describes Himself. "I am that I am".


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Yes, I can, given axioms. Here is a super-simplified version. Try to use your imagination for a better explanation:

Axiom: People want to live comfortably; comfort is good.
Axiom: People live more comfortably when they co-operate.

Reasoning: Murder impedes social co-operation, thereby impeding the good of comfort. That which impedes the good is bad. Murder is bad.

And that is truly why you believe murder to be bad? Because your rational mind worked it out into a neat equation?


Quote:
This natural morality could easily be an evolutionary development. Consider that our primary evolutionary advantage is our relatively large brain. Our brains allow us to cooperate in ways that increase our survivability (and subsequent reproductive success). We form social groups that, through the cooperation of specialists within the group, and through force of numbers, operate to increase our individual and group survivability. Even wolves have social rules that are strictly observed, and that increase their survivability as individuals and as groups.

Many of the moral rules that are taken for granted as basic in one society are disregarded in others, just ask an anthropologist. But the basic rules that create an environment of cooperation remain. Any group that was without these rules would be like an elephant without a trunk, and would die out rather quickly.

These morals are at least partly socially derived and reinforced, that much is certain. But it could also be that these morals may be "stamped" into our DNA. Humans, with their huge brains, are very perceptive, and tend not to trust those without empathy, the socio-paths, as you call them. As it is a lot easier to have the appearance of empathy if one actually feels it, rather than simply fakes it, a capacity for empathy would be selected for, evolutionarily. Such a capacity would be accomodated by our big brains.

Basically, and "amoral" social group could never form, much less sustain itself, and the most successful groups would be those with the highest levels of reciprocal trust, and thus the greatest capacity for cooperation. Think of the ol' prisoners dilemma.

Exactly. I just don't believe that the capacity for moral interaction was an accident of evolution.

Quote:
Consider your claim here:



While rape, murder, and lying, have been universally prohibited (well, not always rape) within a social group, they have certainly not been prohibited as actions against members outside the social group. It is hard to argue that these prohibitions are stamped on our souls as universal absolutes, then, but it is easy to view them as tendencies within groups that are cooperating. Even God commanded the Israelites to slaughter an enemy entirely, even the women and children. Today, we (some of us, anyway) call it murder when an army kills non-combatants. 'Twas not always so.

The social rules/prohibitions in the books of the law were written primarily with Israelite to Israelite interaction in mind. The rules were written to establish, reinforce, and advance that particular social group. Killing outside of that group, as is so often pointed out, was not viewed as murder (the real prohibition in the commandments, as most Christians agree). The natural distaste for killing, which you would say has been imprinted on our souls, is much stronger when that killing is within our own group, and is often completely absent when it comes to killing (or raping, or lying to) those outside our group (as history overwhelmingly demonstrates). It is hard to argue, then, that such rules are universally imprinted as moral absolutes.

But you have demonstrated that it is. You just showed that regardless of social groups 'murder' is intrinsically distasteful, but that 'killing' can be justified for various reasons. And that there is a moral difference between the two. Why is that? Do you think that they worked it out rationally before putting it into practice?

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Have a smiley: Heck, have two:

Thanks. I love smilies. :angel:


Peace be with you!

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Old 10-04-2004, 02:25 PM   #106
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ten to the eleventh
I realized while reading your post that you have never said that you accept any of the biblical accounts of God's actions as factual. If you translate liberally enough, then I suppose we have no real actions of God's to judge. We would still be left with inactions, though, and would be down to talking about the problem of evil, which I'm not wanting to get into here.
Oh, yes! I accept many, if not all (I would need specific examples), of God's actions in Scripture to be literal truth.



Peace!

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Old 10-04-2004, 03:23 PM   #107
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Originally Posted by ZooMom
Ok, I was following you up to this last part. I understand what you are saying and I don't disagree with you, neccessarily. But are you suggesting that this tendency to 'disallow any reasoning that questions' God's inherent morality...is deliberate? Kind of the Christian equivalent of a frightened ostrich?
I'm not saying it is necessarily a fear response. What I am saying is that you have disallowed such reasoning already, as you show very clearly here:

Quote:
Well, I see what you are getting at, but it's really more like the 'Mom Rule'.

Rule #1: Mom is always right.

Rule #2: In the event that Mom is ever wrong, refer back to Rule #1.

I am not saying that there must be found instances in which God can be found to have done wrong, but that for us to claim that we have rationally evaluated the goodness of a particular action, we must allow our capacity to rationally evaluate badness. We must not, therefore, assume that any reasoning that concludes that God has done wrong must be flawed.


Quote:
Originally Posted by ten to the eleventh
On the other hand, if the rules of morality do not apply to God, then we cannot say that God is a moral being. We cannot say that He is good any more than we can say that He is bad. He just IS, and He does what He wants, and His actions are not subject to moral review. See?
Quote:
Yes, I do. But I say again that as the source of morality, God cannot be that which He is not. He cannot be immoral. He is what He is. Even in Scripture, that is how He describes Himself. "I am that I am".
Note, I did not say "immoral," I said "amoral." But I'm confused here. How is it that God cannot violate a rule He created for us? The rules were created for us, and not for him, right? I don't follow that just because God wrote the rules, he must therefore always be found to have abided by those rules. If God is defined as purely good, then it is not through reason that God is found good. Again, my question: If God creates rule 1, an inviolable objective measure, but then proceeds to violate rule 1, then can we not say that God has acted immorally?

Your answer before:
Quote:
Rule #1: Mom is always right.
Rule #2: In the event that Mom is ever wrong, refer back to Rule#1."
only serves to establish that the morality of God's (or Mom's) actions are not open for consideration. And again, we have that it is a matter of dogma, or what you might call "spiritual truth," that God is good. God's goodness was entirely determined prior to and independently of reason. Reason in this matter is wholly irrelevant, under the condition given. One may claim that it is highly improbable that God would act immorally, but the possibility must be allowed before the judgment that He never has can be made.


Quote:
And that is truly why you believe murder to be bad? Because your rational mind worked it out into a neat equation?
That is not why I feel it to be bad. I feel it to be bad because it sucks, if you know what I mean. You asked if I could deduce the badness of murder logically, and I showed that it could be done independently of supernatural notions. My logic is also a formalization of the evolutionary (both social and physical) logic behind our conviction that murder is bad.

Quote:
Exactly. I just don't believe that the capacity for moral interaction was an accident of evolution.
Well, "accident," is not an accurate term, but that's another topic. The point is that there are sound explanations for the existence of morality that do not require God.

I said
Quote:
It is hard to argue, then, that such rules are universally imprinted as moral absolutes.
you said:
Quote:
But you have demonstrated that it is. You just showed that regardless of social groups 'murder' is intrinsically distasteful, but that 'killing' can be justified for various reasons. And that there is a moral difference between the two. Why is that? Do you think that they worked it out rationally before putting it into practice?
What I am saying is that while the really basic premises that allow social cooperation may be intrinsically held, they have only been more innately applicable to intra-group interactions, and have not applied universally or absolutely.

Take caveman group 1, all getting along fine and cooperating productively. Ugh, from group 1, whacks Googa, also in group 1, over the head and takes his food. The other group members proceed to run him off. Now, Googa, recovering from a severe headache, wanders by caveman group 2 in the next valley over. He sneaks in, pounces on poor Trog, thwaks him good, and takes off with his food. Proudly, he walks back into the camp of caveman group 1 and tells of his bravery and adventure, and all the cave folk in caveman group 1 pat Googa on the back and tell him what a good job he has done, as everybody chows down on the spoils.

Actions such as killing, lying, stealing, raping have generally always been viewed as morally repugnant within groups, but not across groups. This fact is consistent with the evolutionary development of a moral sense, but not so much with a God-stamp on each of us, which would, I would think, make it as emotionally repugnant to kill Habib in Iraq, or Mr. Nuygen in Vietnam, as it would to kill Joe Smith next door. But it seemed to me that a lot of good Christian (and non-Christian) folks have screamed for the blood of caveman group 2 over in Afghanistan or Iraq.

When people have argued that we shouldn't treat others outside our groups differently, they have had to do so using reason. Their reasoning may have used biblical commands as premises, but reasoning was required to persuade because people do not feel the same sort of empathy for "the other" as they do for their familiars. Often, such reasoning has simple rational pragmatism as its base: "Hey, Googa, if you keep stealing their food, they are going to come over here and beat the crap out of us. As a matter of fact, you will be punished if you do it again."


You asked about the moral difference between murder and killing:

Quote:
Do you think that they worked it out rationally before putting it into practice?
Yes, they often did. The Israelites reasoned that because they were God's chosen people, and that God had promised them a patch of land, that anyone on that patch of land was in defiance of God's will, and to kill them was not murder, but righteousness in action. That is reasoning. We are smart monkeys, and we often recognize apparent contradiction. Reasoning, especially highly motivated reasoning, can often overcome apparent contradictions. If we know that to refrain from something that we usually consider wrong will be to our material disadvantage, we often use reason to find a way that what we want to do is not the same as what we consider to be wrong. As a mother, I'm sure you are intimately familiar with that concept.

edit: Even better for the Israelites, they got to write up their preferred version of their history, and that version has been successfully promoted as unquestionable truth ever since.
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Old 10-04-2004, 03:46 PM   #108
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So, if in this history of the Israelites, written by them, under the presumption that they were God's chosen people, and without any critical editing by any neutral party, we can find a depiction of God's action, or inaction that appears, at least to ethics we hold, to be morally questionable, are we capable of rationally evaluating it? If, to this general question, you answer that first we must assume that whatever God has done is morally perfect, then we really can't have a fair analysis, can we? Our finding, given that condition, cannot be meaningful, can it? A finding of "not-guilty" cannot be said to reinforce the a priori assumption that makes such a finding necessary, can it?
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Old 10-04-2004, 04:14 PM   #109
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Gizmo
Hey, ten to the eleventh - your an engineer too! Where the hell did you learn all that Philosophical bullshit?

Giz.
Well, when you spend 8 years getting a 4-5 year degree, that kind of bullshit is likely to creep in there somewhere.
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Old 10-04-2004, 04:29 PM   #110
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[QUOTE=ZooMom]I think I understand your question, and the answer is 'No'. God cannot do 'wrong'. That doesn't meant that people of faith will always agree with or understand God's actions, or inactions ATCMB, but as the source of morality (according to believers) God cannot be wrong or do wrong.


Does that answer the question, or have I misunderstood something? :wave:


Peace be with you!

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I am so happy that you know God's mind
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