Originally Posted by another site

Isaiah's original Hebrew, with the mistranslated words underscored, reads: "Hinneh ha-almah harah ve-yeldeth ben ve-karath shem-o immanuel"; -- which, falsely translated by the false pen of the pious translators, runs thus in the English: "Behold, a virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel". The Hebrew words ha-almah means simply the young woman; and harah is the Hebrew past or perfect tense, "conceived," which in Hebrew, as in English, represents past and completed action. Honestly translated, the verse reads: "Behold, the young woman has conceived -- (is with child) -- and beareth a son and calleth his name Immanuel.

Originally Posted by show_no_mercy

Can anyone who knows Hebrew verify this? I knew that "almah" meant young woman, but is the Isaiah passage really talking in past tense?