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Old 04-20-2005, 03:58 PM   #21
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Worry not, the deleted word wasn't demeaning,
whew!
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but truthful,
I think i'd rather demeaning.
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and I said in haste, my fault. Here's a better formatted arguement that I made, without all the anti-Bible rhetoric and the differing conversations in the thread.
thanks muchly.
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Old 04-20-2005, 04:02 PM   #22
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No problem. I'm still agnostic about it, and quite frankly, as Walt brought up, it could have been a mistake by a later editor unaware of the numerological meaning in the geneology.
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Old 04-20-2005, 04:42 PM   #23
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sMack - actually Messiah means "anointed one"
Mess-i-ah means "annointed one of Yah" and has a direct correlation with the God Yah.
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Old 04-20-2005, 04:52 PM   #24
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Originally Posted by Dharma
Mess-i-ah means "annointed one of Yah" and has a direct correlation with the God Yah.
Messiah is an English word, not a Hebrew or Aramiac one. Unless "mess" means "annoint" in english, the above derivation appears to be without foundation. The Hebrew is "Moshiak", and has nothing resembling "Yah" in it.
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Old 04-20-2005, 04:56 PM   #25
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It's all Greek to me anyway.
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Old 04-20-2005, 05:06 PM   #26
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Also, the term "anointed one" is used because Jewish kings are annointed with olive oil as part of their coronation ceremony
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Old 04-20-2005, 06:34 PM   #27
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Wallener
Messiah is an English word, not a Hebrew or Aramiac one. Unless "mess" means "annoint" in english, the above derivation appears to be without foundation. The Hebrew is "Moshiak", and has nothing resembling "Yah" in it.
here is a derivation:

http://www.theologyweb.com/forum/arc...hp/t-6415.html
There is no such word as "moshi'ia" in Hebrew. The root word is "Yasha" the "mem" is a preposition, with the conjunction "waw" or "and." When the preposition is prefixed to the word the initial "yod" of "Yasha" loses its consonantal effect so instead of being min-w-yasha it becomes "moshi'im," with the masculine plural ending "im"


---------------

and Yasha means "God saves"
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Old 04-20-2005, 11:29 PM   #28
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There is not statement in the currently canonical sayings of Jesus that qualifies as "G-d taking" heresy or blasphemy in Judaism.
If there wasn't, then most Jews would also be christians. As jesus ties to pass himself off as a son of god whether for real(or as even god himself), or the sense from Judaism, he fails on both counts.
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Old 04-21-2005, 12:17 AM   #29
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sMacK
No Jew would have believed that Jesus was the Messiah, or the Son of God for that matter, if the lineage to David could not be shown.
But by far the overwhelming majority of current Christians are Gentiles, so why should they care about the lineage to David?
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Old 04-21-2005, 06:28 AM   #30
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Default Mary to whom Jesus Was Married

Hi Chris,

To quote Johnny Depp, "Now that's interesting."

If Joseph was Mary's father and the geneology attached to the gospel of Matthew is trying to prove kingship for Jesus, then it would work just as well if Jesus was married to Mary. Whoever changed Jesus to the son of Mary, rather than the husband, also eliminated one name from the geneology to make Jesus the seventh seventh, instead of Mary. This I believe answers Walter's criticism of your discovery.

I cannot help thinking that it was the misogynist Tertullian who changed the Matthew geneology and wrote the one in Luke. I suggest that he had a real problem with his wife who was beautiful, prophetic and probably much more popular than him in his Montanist clique. It caused him to put in a lot of his misogynist ideology when he put together and rewrote his New Testament.

If this is correct, it suggests that Brown's Da Vinci Code is probably more true than Eusebius' History.

Warmly,

Philosopher Jay

Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Worry not, the deleted word wasn't demeaning, but truthful, and I said in haste, my fault. Here's a better formatted arguement that I made, without all the anti-Bible rhetoric and the differing conversations in the thread.
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