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Old 12-06-2012, 08:23 AM   #951
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Ok, aa, can you expand your argument further?

Can you tell us WHO wrote what documents, when, where, in what language, and why?
You don't even seem to understand what "actual evidence" means??

The actual recovered dated evidence and compatible sources ALLOW me to present the STRONGEST possible argument that the Jesus story and cult originated in the 2nd century.

There is no actual evidence to supply names of the authors of the NT Canon.

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Let's start with Paul. Who wrote the documents traditionally attributed to Paul, when were they written, and why were they written?
Again, the actual evidence ALLOWS me to argue that Jesus, the disciples and Paul had NO real existence in the 1st century and before c 70 CE.

In other words, the name Paul or the Pauline writers were INVENTED sometime in the 2nd cetury or later to DUPE and DECEIVE people in the Roman Empire into believing that Jesus and his disciples did exist and was resurrected.
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Old 12-06-2012, 08:48 AM   #952
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That is where the name Ἰησοῦν 'Jesus' first enters the Bible, being the Greek version of the name יהושע Yahoshua, the son of Nun in the LXX.

The 'Joshua' <sic> Ἰησοῦν 'Jesus' -national hero that in the Scriptures led the children of Israel into The Promised Land.

The Name also comes up in prophecy as;
Quote:
[11 Take the silver and gold and make a crown, and set it on the head of the high priest, Joshua [יהושוע] son of Jozadak
12 "Behold the man ( ייהושוע 'Joshua'; Ἰησοῦ 'Jesu' in Greek) whose Name is the BRANCH' and he shall grow-up [branch] out of his place, and he shall build the temple of יהוה [the Lord?]" (Zech 6:11 & 12)
and is in Hebrew quite literally the ancient word for 'Saviour' or 'Deliverer'.

... So, Ἰησοῦν 'Jesus' via the LXX, was expected to be that 'Joshua' Deliverer to come, for several centuries before he was ever 'born'.

No surprise then that the authors of The Gospels would make a big point of sticking their mystical god/man infant with that LXX derived Greek moniker.

Of course the English spelling and pronunciation 'Jesus' does not accurately convey either the Hebrew or Greek pronunciations.
.
So, the name Ἰησοῦν ['Jesu'] is the Greek version of the name יהושע [Yahoshua; Joshua = English(?)], the son of Nun in the LXX.
The name Greek Ἰησοῦν is pronounced e'ay-sooce is the source of our well known name 'Jesus' > Jees-us.

'Joshua of the Hebrew and Greek texts is not treated carefully in English translations. Custom and tradition are followed rather than always following the forms that the ancient documents would indicate as being correct.
Or let me put it this way, IF 'Jesus' were a correct English rendering of that name, there would be not be a single 'Joshua' to be found anywhere in any English language Bible.
The Church and the Bible translators have always compromised and 'played games' with this particular name.

The Hebrew name יהושוע is composite, being actually a statement or short sentence in Hebrew. (similar in this to many Native American names)

The elements that comprise the name הושוע beigin with the name of the man הושע spelled 'Oshea' in most English texts, but actually 'Ho'sheah' or 'Ho'shua' as pronounced in Hebrew (Numbers 13:8)

This is the name that 'Moses' changed by adding the prefexd yod [ י]
Because of the peculiarities of Hebrew syntax this accomplishes indicating two interdependent thoughts.
First as the word or name Hoshea signifies to 'help', 'deliver', 'resecue', or 'save' prefexing the yod would form the short and simple Hebrew sentence 'He helps' 'He saves' or He delivers'.
BUT secondly, another pecularity is that simply שוע independently, means 'to 'help', 'deliver', 'resecue', or 'save'.
and this prefexed with the theophonic יהו ('Jeho' Yahu)
would indicate 'Yah's' help, 'Yah's' Deliverer' or 'Yah's Salvation'
And as the theophonic Name יה 'YAH' or 'YAHH' signifies Self-Existant, the name 'YAH-Hoshua' has an implicit meaning of being 'Self-Existent Help' or 'Self Existent Salvation', that 'HELP' or salvation residing within the maintaining of the very name itself!

The peculiar Name thus effectively becomes a shibboleth military 'pass word'.

This is why such stress is laid upon believing, 'calling upon', and being 'baptized' immersed "in the NAME of ....." throughout the NT.

The Greek and any other variant pronunciations are thus effectively the sibbolehts of those devoted to destruction.


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Originally Posted by MrMacSon
And, 'Jesus' is the English version of Ἰησοῦν ['Jesu'] ??
'Jesus' is the English version of Ἰησοῦν [E'ay-sooce']. The form Jesu comes from the Greek spelling Ἰησοῦ, which lacks the terminal gender indicator ν 's'.
My time is limited at the moment so I will, if nescessary, address your other questions at a latter time.


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Old 12-06-2012, 10:28 AM   #953
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The name Greek Ἰησοῦν is pronounced e'ay-sooce is the source of our well known name 'Jesus' > Jees-us.

'Joshua of the Hebrew and Greek texts is not treated carefully in English translations. Custom and tradition are followed rather than always following the forms that the ancient documents would indicate as being correct.

Or let me put it this way, IF 'Jesus' were a correct English rendering of that name, there would be not be a single 'Joshua' to be found anywhere in any English language Bible. The Church and the Bible translators have always compromised and 'played games' with this particular name.

My time is limited at the moment so I will, if necessary, address your other questions at a latter time.

Sheshbazzar
Cheers. Thank you very much.

I have delved a bit more into Christus & Christos, but would be interested in your take.
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Old 12-06-2012, 10:31 AM   #954
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The word used in Zechariah 6 is TSEMACH, not NETZER. The first is a shoot, the second is a branch. In any case the vision concerns Joshua the high priest at the time of the start of the second Temple.
Yes, but 'netzer' is used elsewhere?

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The Talmud recounts the story of Yeshu/Yehoshua the son of Miriam and Yosef Pandera. However Yeshu was never accused of being a false messiah, but a deceiver of Jews and magician.
Yes, but it seems more stories were developed around that name ...
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Old 12-06-2012, 10:42 AM   #955
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...

My argument [is] that the Jesus story and cult originated in the 2nd century .....

My argument is ... actually supported by recovered DATED manuscripts.

All arguments that the Jesus story and cult originated in the 1st century are EXTREMELY weak and without a shred of ACTUAL credible corroborative evidence--No dated manuscripts--no eyewitnesses even from supposed contemporary Apologetic sources--Not even the Church can say with certainty when Jesus was born and when Jesus and Paul really died.

The very writings of the Church suggest that their supposed 1st century history is Bogus and was invented to DUPE and DECEIVE the people of the Roman Empire.

....

This is a partial list of the fraudulent writings whether wholly or in part.
  • Acts of the Apostles.
  • All the Pauline letters.
  • Writings under the name of Ignatius.
  • Writings under the name of Clement of Rome.
  • Writings under the name of Clement of Alexandria.
  • Writings under the name of Irenaeus.
  • Writings under the name of Polycarp.
  • Writings under the name of Tertullian.
  • Writings under the name of Origen.
  • Writings under the name of Eusebius.
  • Writings under the name of Jerome.
Those writings were deliberately composed to DUPE people into believing that the Jesus story and cult originated in the 1st century when there was NO known actual evidence for Jesus, the disciples and Paul in the 1st century.
aa5874,
I agree that the current versions of the current Jesus-[the]-Christ story are likely have been collated and intertwined in the 2nd and 3rd Centuries, but I also subscribe to theories that the Christian-biblical stories had their antecedents in stories that began around the time the LXX was translated into Greek ~ 2-300BCE.

It seems there was a real mish-mash of stories in that Messianic Age: Zoroastrianism, Mithracism, Docetism, Arianism, etc transitioning to & leading to Montanism, early Christianity, etc,
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Old 12-06-2012, 12:18 PM   #956
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I agree that the current versions of the current Jesus-[the]-Christ story are likely have been collated and intertwined in the 2nd and 3rd Centuries, but I also subscribe to theories that the Christian-biblical stories had their antecedents in stories that began around the time the LXX was translated into Greek ~ 2-300BCE.

It seems there was a real mish-mash of stories in that Messianic Age: Zoroastrianism, Mithracism, Docetism, Arianism, etc transitioning to & leading to Montanism, early Christianity, etc,
The Jesus story was fundamentally derived from Hebrew Scripture. Jesus, the Son of man is specifically based on prophecies found in Daniel.

The Gospel of Jesus, the son of man, that the kingdom of God was at hand and was coming in the clouds of heaven is found DIRECTLY in the book of Daniel.

Daniel 7
Quote:
13 I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven...........14 And there was given him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve him: his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away , and his kingdom that which shall not be destroyed .
Mark 14
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Again the high priest asked him, and said unto him, Art thou the Christ, the Son of the Blessed? 62And[b Jesus said , I am : and ye shall see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.
The Jesus of the NT was the One like the Son of man that was to come in the clouds of heaven found directly in the book of Daniel and Hebrew Scripture.

Hebrew Scripture, Jewish Mythology, the fundamental source for the Jesus story is Bolted and Bound to the NT Canon of the Christian Bible.
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Old 12-06-2012, 07:10 PM   #957
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In other words, the name Paul or the Pauline writers were INVENTED sometime in the 2nd cetury or later to DUPE and DECEIVE people in the Roman Empire into believing that Jesus and his disciples did exist and was resurrected.
So, you claim to know approximately when and why the writings first existed.

I've seen your evidence about 'when'.

How about 'why'? Where is your evidence that these writings were written in order to 'dupe' and 'deceive'? Who was trying to deceive who? And what was their method of deception?
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Old 12-06-2012, 10:36 PM   #958
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Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
In other words, the name Paul or the Pauline writers were INVENTED sometime in the 2nd cetury or later to DUPE and DECEIVE people in the Roman Empire into believing that Jesus and his disciples did exist and was resurrected.
So, you claim to know approximately when and why the writings first existed.

I've seen your evidence about 'when'.

How about 'why'? Where is your evidence that these writings were written in order to 'dupe' and 'deceive'? Who was trying to deceive who? And what was their method of deception?
It is plain to see that without Acts of the Apostles and the Pauline writings there would be Nothing of the post-resurrection and ascension activities of the Apostles and Saul/Paul.

No other books in the Canon of the Canon mentions any acts of the Apostles or Saul/Paul after Ascension.

Acts of the Apostles is a work of Fiction including the Ascension, the Coming of the Holy Ghost on the day of Pentecost, the miracles [ instantly raising the dead], speaking fluently in foreign languages [talking in tongues], and the conversion of Saul/Paul when he was blinded by a bright light and "heard" the voice of the resurrected Jesus.

The Pauline writer attempted to corroborate Acts of the Apostles and claimed that Jesus was God's Own Son , that he Paul Spoke in tongues, that he SAW the resurrected Jesus and that the very same Jesus revealed his gospel to him--No Remission of Sins--No Salvation without the resurrection.

Acts of the Apostles and the Pauline writings are a Pack of LIES which have Duped and Deceived people in the Roman Empire into believing the Monstrous Tale of Jesus, the disciples and Paul is the truth.

Against the Galileans
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It is, I think, expedient to set forth to all mankind the reasons by which I was convinced that the fabrication of the Galilaeans is a fiction of men composed by wickedness.

Though it has in it nothing divine, by making full use of that part of the soul which loves fable and is childish and foolish, it has induced men to believe that the monstrous tale is truth.
The very Church and its writers claimed Paul was Executed under Nero yet simultaneously claimed or implied Paul was ALIVE AFTER gLuke was Composed.

The very Church claimed Paul was executed under Nero yet an Apologetic source, the Muratorian Canon, claimed or implied Paul was ALIVE AFTER Revelation by John was composed.

The ACTUAL Recovered Dated evidence is compatible with Apologetic sources that claim Paul was ALIVE AFTER c 70 CE or After the Fall of the Temple.

The NT Canon is a compilation of 2nd century Myth Fables of a Son of a God primarily from Jewish Myhtology, and that of the Greeks and Roman
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Old 12-07-2012, 07:05 AM   #959
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In other words, the name Paul or the Pauline writers were INVENTED sometime in the 2nd cetury or later to DUPE and DECEIVE people in the Roman Empire into believing that Jesus and his disciples did exist and was resurrected.
So, you claim to know approximately when and why the writings first existed.

I've seen your evidence about 'when'.

How about 'why'? Where is your evidence that these writings were written in order to 'dupe' and 'deceive'? Who was trying to deceive who? And what was their method of deception?
It is plain to see that without Acts of the Apostles and the Pauline writings there would be Nothing of the post-resurrection and ascension activities of the Apostles and Saul/Paul.

No other books in the Canon of the Canon mentions any acts of the Apostles or Saul/Paul after Ascension.

Acts of the Apostles is a work of Fiction including the Ascension, the Coming of the Holy Ghost on the day of Pentecost, the miracles [ instantly raising the dead], speaking fluently in foreign languages [talking in tongues], and the conversion of Saul/Paul when he was blinded by a bright light and "heard" the voice of the resurrected Jesus.

The Pauline writer attempted to corroborate Acts of the Apostles and claimed that Jesus was God's Own Son , that he Paul Spoke in tongues, that he SAW the resurrected Jesus and that the very same Jesus revealed his gospel to him--No Remission of Sins--No Salvation without the resurrection.

Acts of the Apostles and the Pauline writings are a Pack of LIES which have Duped and Deceived people in the Roman Empire into believing the Monstrous Tale of Jesus, the disciples and Paul is the truth.

Against the Galileans
Quote:
It is, I think, expedient to set forth to all mankind the reasons by which I was convinced that the fabrication of the Galilaeans is a fiction of men composed by wickedness.

Though it has in it nothing divine, by making full use of that part of the soul which loves fable and is childish and foolish, it has induced men to believe that the monstrous tale is truth.
The very Church and its writers claimed Paul was Executed under Nero yet simultaneously claimed or implied Paul was ALIVE AFTER gLuke was Composed.

The very Church claimed Paul was executed under Nero yet an Apologetic source, the Muratorian Canon, claimed or implied Paul was ALIVE AFTER Revelation by John was composed.

The ACTUAL Recovered Dated evidence is compatible with Apologetic sources that claim Paul was ALIVE AFTER c 70 CE or After the Fall of the Temple.

The NT Canon is a compilation of 2nd century Myth Fables of a Son of a God primarily from Jewish Myhtology, and that of the Greeks and Roman
You didn't answer my question. None of what you wrote indicated 'why' there would be a coordinated attempt to fabricate the beginnings of Christianity, nor is it evidence for the reason of deception.

Instead you alluded to Paul's conversion. That works against you since Galatians and Acts poorly coincide. If the writer was the same person then the account in Galatians would have been the same--with a vision and a voice.

Instead you appeal to Against the Galileans, which was written in the mid 4th century. It is of virtually no value if you claim these books were written in the 2nd century. How would the author have known? If he could write about history 200 years later, why couldn't the books of the 2nd century have also been translating history from the 1st century?

Instead you appeal to a possible mistake regarding the timing of Paul's death. If it was made up, why would they make a mistake? They had every opportunity to do a great job with their conspiracy, yet there were so very many mistakes. This needs to be explained for it to hold any water.

Instead you appeal to the existence of the supernatural in the documents. Since writing about both the supernatural and natural are not mutually exclusive tasks, this argument is of no value to your theory as to WHEN they were written.

Instead you appeal to a very questionable interpretation of the Muratorian Canon, which I showed previously was a very weak argument on your part. Even if you are right it again points out the weakness of conspirators--why couldn't they manufacture the timelines of a very few number of major characters in their 'story of deception' in a way that was clear?

The idea of a conspiracy in which dozens and dozens of books were manufactured, which contradicted each other and contained much information that reflected long-evolved traditions instead of a fresh writing of history is, quite frankly, far-fetched and devoid of common sense.

Would you care again to try and answer the questions?:

If your only source is a writer 200 years later that was 'convinced' they were fabrications by men of wickendness, then your theory is in big trouble. Where is your CREDIBLE evidence that these writings were written in order to 'dupe' and 'deceive'? Who was trying to deceive who? What was their motivation? And what was their method of deception--how could they pass the word along, and to who?
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Old 12-07-2012, 07:09 AM   #960
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My argument is solid and cannot be overturned.

The Jesus story and cult originated in the 2nd century.

In effect, the NT is a compilation of 2nd century and later Myth Fables that were circulated in the Roman Empire.

Now, a writer Bart Ehrman wrote a book "Did Jesus Exist?"--"the historical argument for Jesus of Nazareth" and in chapter 5 he argues that there are "two key data for the historicity of Jesus".

What are those two key historical data according to Ehrman??

1. The Crucifixion.

2. Paul and his associates, Peter and James.

Ehrman's "two key data" was derived from the NT.

Now, hear how Ehrman himself describes the NT--his source for the "two key data".

Bart Ehrman’s “Did Jesus Exist?” page 182
Quote:
It is absolutely true, in my judgment, that the New Testament accounts of Jesus are filled with discrepancies and contradictions in matters both large and small.

Anyone who doubts that simply has to compare very carefully a story found in one of the Gospels with the same story found in another.
Ehrman challenges his readers--Pick any the same stories in the NT and they are filled with discrepancies and contradictions.

Ehrman's own challenge will show that his own "two key data" are WORTHLESS--essentially "historical garbage".

The crucifixion of a character called Jesus of Nazareth, and the Apostles Paul, Peter and James are unknown outside the NT and Apologetic writers.

Pick any story about Jesus and you find discrepancies and contradictions.

Pick any story about Paul in Acts and the Pauline letters and you will most likely find discrepancies and contradictions.

1. The author of Acts never claimed Paul wrote letters of doctrine and never claimed he wrote letters to Churches. See all the Pauline letters

2. The author of Acts never claimed the Apostle James was the Lord's brother and Never claimed Paul met an actual brother of the Jesus. See Galatians 1

3. The author of Acts did NOT claim Paul went to Arabia. See Galatians 1

4. The author of Acts did NOT claim Paul only met Peter and James. See Galatians 1

5. The author of Acts did NOT claim Paul went to Jerusalem ONLY twice in 14 years. See Galatians 2.

6. The author of Acts claim Paul was BLINDED and did NOT see Jesus contrary to the Pauline writer. See 1 Cor. 15

7. The author of Acts did NOT claim a Gospel was Revealed to Paul. See Galatians 1

8. The author of Acts did NOT claim Paul consulted entities WITHOUT Flesh and blood. See Galatians 1.


The stories of Paul in Acts and the Pauline writings are indeed filled with discrepancies and contradictions.

Either one or both are in Error.

Both Acts and the Pauline letters cannot be correct and there is NO external independent non-apologetic source that mentioned the activities of Paul.

Ehrman's "two key data" to argue for an historical Jesus are of zero help in his argument.

Ehrman really had NO "key data"--Acts of the Apostles and the Pauline writings are both works of Fiction about a character called the Son of God who was Raised from the dead.

The NT is indeed a compilation of 2nd century Myth Fables that were Believed in antiquity.
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