FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Today at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 08-14-2004, 09:51 AM   #11
Regular Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2003
Location: central USA
Posts: 434
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by post tenebras lux
. . . whether the current versions are effectively the originals (in which case there's one set of questions to be pondered) or not (another set of questions to ponder, but at least we could move innerrant a little lower down the list).
Hi Luxie,

First off, I am in complete agreement with cweb255's statement here:

Quote:
cweb255:

You're forgetting about the many eschatological/soteriological letters and Jewish cults that arose from 50 BC to 50 AD. Christians weren't even Christians at first, but the Nazarean sect. If you ever have a chance to go through the Dead Sea Scrolls, you'll see what I mean. Christians just got lucky.

Thus, IMO, there was indeed a pre-gospel (and even pre-Pauline epistle) oral tradition. It is also my opinion, however, that this pre-gospel/epistle tradition is not accurately reflected in the later canonical literature.

Among many similar examples that could be offered, the following example described by Bart Ehrman lends strong support to this viewpoint:

Quote:
One of the earliest examples (of preliterary traditions) derives from the opening verses of Paul's letter to the Romans, in which he appears to be quoting a bipartite christological creed: "(Christ Jesus . . .) who came from the seed of David according to the flesh, who was appointed Son of God in power according to the Spirit of holiness by his resurrection from the dead" (Rom. 1:3-4).

That the text embodies a pre-Pauline creed is evident on both linguistic and ideational grounds: terms such as "appointed" and "Spirit of holiness" occur nowhere else in Paul, nor does the notion of Jesus' Davidic descent. In particular, the idea that Jesus received a divine appointment to be God's Son at his resurrection is not at all Pauline.

What has struck a number of scholars in this connection is that the highly balanced structure that one normally finds in such creedal fragments, is here broken by a phrase that is distinctly Pauline; "in power". Once this Pauline feature is removed, a balanced structure is restored, and one is left with a christological confession that appears to pre-date the writings of our earliest Christian author, or at least his letter to the Romans (dated usually in the late 50's C.E.), a confession that acknowledges that Christ attained his status of divine sonship only at his resurrection.

The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture, Bart D. Ehrman, pg. 48, Oxford Univ. Press, New York/Oxford, 1993.

So again, in line with cweb255's thinking, it seems likely that there was a preliterary tradition, but that this original tradition has been re-written and/or edited so as to support the later tenets of "orthodoxy".


Amlodhi
Amlodhi is offline  
Old 08-14-2004, 11:49 AM   #12
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2003
Location: Eagle River, Alaska
Posts: 7,816
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Amlodhi
Thus, IMO, there was indeed a pre-gospel (and even pre-Pauline epistle) oral tradition.
Just to be clear, I agree with this assumption. Identifying traces of this in subsequent written texts, however, is a pipe dream absent a systematic methodology.

Quote:
So again, in line with cweb255's thinking, it seems likely that there was a preliterary tradition, but that this original tradition has been re-written and/or edited so as to support the later tenets of "orthodoxy".
Since I don't know of any way to reliably identify any "preliterary tradition" (other than Crossan's which failed), I tend to consider the claim with agnostic skepticism.
Amaleq13 is offline  
Old 08-14-2004, 01:27 PM   #13
Contributor
 
Join Date: Jun 2000
Location: Los Angeles area
Posts: 40,549
Default

The formulaic "creed" in Romans 1 might as well have been a post-Pauline interpolation.
Toto is offline  
Old 08-14-2004, 04:06 PM   #14
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2001
Location: the reliquary of Ockham's razor
Posts: 4,035
Default

Perhaps we should discuss the general case. We are looking at a document written between 500 BCE and 500 CE. The document tells a story without indicating the author (or his sources) explicitly.

What kind of arguments could be mounted for showing that there was an oral tradition behind some of the document? Or against?

Feel free to mention real texts from the period, from more recent times, or just from what you imagine would have been the case.

best,
Peter Kirby
Peter Kirby is online now   Edit/Delete Message
Old 08-14-2004, 04:36 PM   #15
Contributor
 
Join Date: Jun 2000
Location: Los Angeles area
Posts: 40,549
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Peter Kirby
Perhaps we should discuss the general case. We are looking at a document written between 500 BCE and 500 CE. The document tells a story without indicating the author (or his sources) explicitly.

What kind of arguments could be mounted for showing that there was an oral tradition behind some of the document? Or against?

Feel free to mention real texts from the period, from more recent times, or just from what you imagine would have been the case.

best,
Peter Kirby
The first that comes to mind is Homer's Iliad and Odyssey.

The oral tradition behind those epics is obvious from their poetic, rhymed structure, with numerous repeated phrases.
Quote:
An analysis of the structure and vocabulary of the Iliad and Odyssey shows that the poems consist of regular, repeating phrases; even entire verses repeat. Could the Iliad and Odyssey have been oral-formulaic poems, composed on the spot by the poet using a collection of memorized traditional verses and phases? Milman Parry and Albert Lord pointed out that such elaborate oral tradition, foreign to today's literate cultures, is typical of epic poetry in an exclusively oral culture.
Their is no comparable repetition of phrases or rhyming scheme in the gospels.
Toto is offline  
Old 08-14-2004, 05:06 PM   #16
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2001
Location: the reliquary of Ockham's razor
Posts: 4,035
Default

Yes, it is clear that none of the four canonical Gospels were handed down as a whole in the oral tradition, in the form of a poetic epic. The claim that is made about them is that the individual vignettes and sayings attributed to Jesus were circulating among the members of this sect in its first and second century.

I'm not so sure, though, that there are no memory-aiding oral devices discernable in the Jesus tradition. There is the discussion of repeated catchwords in the Gospel of Thomas, where the use of a word in one saying may have led to the recall of the next. Also, Meier in volume 2 of A Marginal Jew attempts a back-translation of the Lord's Prayer. I have little doubt that the prayer was actually used by Christians before being set down on paper. At best it could be claimed that the attribution to Jesus is the invention of the evangelists (though that would be only a claim).

And there may be other indications (or counter-indications) that a section of the texts were being spoken about before being written down. I once tried to read through Bultmann's A History of the Synoptic Tradition, but I was turned off by the liberal use of Greek and the style of translation from German. Maybe later.

best,
Peter Kirby
Peter Kirby is online now   Edit/Delete Message
Old 08-15-2004, 12:27 AM   #17
Contributor
 
Join Date: Jun 2000
Location: Los Angeles area
Posts: 40,549
Default

The March-April 2004 edition of the Westar Institute's Fourth R contains an essay by Robert Funk entitled "Do the Gospels Contain Eyewitness Reports?" It is not online as far as I can tell.

Funk states:

Quote:
If the gospels are eyewitness reports, one might expect the disciples to remember how and when they first came into the Jesus movement. If the stories told about their joining the movement are inconsistent or contradictory, can we expect them to be eyewitness reports of other events in the early Jesus movement?
Fund then examines the stories in the gospels and decides that they are not credible as eyewitness recollections, but instead appear to be idealized and stereotypical, retrojections from the standpoint of later believers, the product of imagination informed by later events or beliefs. He concludes that the disciples either did not remember how they came to be involved in the Jesus movement (which seems unlikely) or that the stories had been repeated and elaborated so often that the original core had been lost. But he also notes that there may have been other motives for constructing the stories - coopting and subordinationg John the Baptist in particular.

Mark 1:16-20 depicts Jesus recruiting Simon, also known as Peter, and Andrew, and then the Boanerges James and John when they are fishing on the Sea of Galilee. There is no motive for the fishermen to abandon their work and follow Jesus. Matthew has copied these two stories.

gLuke supplies an alternative and more elaborate account, with Jesus commandeering Simon's fishing boat to teach to the crowd on the shore, and then producing a miraculous catch. Andrew has disappeared and John and James are now Simon Peter's partners.

In gJohn, there is a third scenario. Jesus recruits Andrew and Peter in the Jordan Valley where John the Baptist has been baptising, and then Philip and Nathanael. The motivation appears to be John the Baptist's identification of Jesus as the Lamb of God (John 1:35)

Funk concludes by saying that it is curious that there are call stories for only seven persons. He opines that there were originally seven, but the number 12 was adopted for symbolic reasons, to claim continuity with the 12 tribes of Israel.

He then adds a note that the Gospel of the Ebionites lists a call to 8 disciples. He does not deal very satisfactorily with the lack of a consistent list of disciples in the gospels.

I would expect someone to have speculated that the missing disciples were the women who were written out of the gospels.

All of which raises the question: if the gospel stories were based on eyewitness accounts that have mutated to the point of complete unreliability, can we say that they are based on eyewitness accounts?
Toto is offline  
Old 08-15-2004, 10:33 AM   #18
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Nov 2003
Location: Eagle River, Alaska
Posts: 7,816
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
...if the gospel stories were based on eyewitness accounts that have mutated to the point of complete unreliability, can we say that they are based on eyewitness accounts?
If nothing can be identified in the Gospel stories as reliable history, nothing reliable can be said about allegedly historical sources.


Regarding the identification of "oral traditions", I found the Crossan quote I was trying to recall:

"If the transition from historical Jesus to earliest Christianity depends primarily on memory, we need to indicate clearly what theory of memory we are using in our analysis and what practice of memory we are observing in our evidence. If we invoke oral tradition, we need to explain in detail how the Jesus materials became a tradition and what evidence we have for the controls that make a tradition more than gossip, rumor, hearsay, or even memory. If we speak of oral transmission and/or aural reception, we need to be precise about what the ear retained from hearing texts read or words spoken." (The Birth of Christianity, p.85)
Amaleq13 is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 05:22 PM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.