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Old 05-12-2008, 07:35 AM   #251
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Out of interest, how would you square the fact that (AFAIK from reading Ehrman) Matthew and Luke are the first-mentioned and most popular gospels in the early Church (the former amongst the orthodox, the latter amongst the Gnostics) with Mark being barely recognised as a "digest" version and having no evident veneration as the earliest) with the modern scholarly digging that has found Mark to be the earliest?
I think Mark and Matthew tie for first mention (by Papias), and that Papias is actually referring to something a bit different when he refers to Matthew; so Mark either ties or wins.

As for popularity, no question, Matthew skyrocketed while Mark foundered somewhat. There are too many potential reasons for this to single out only one as the cause:
  1. Mark lacked birth narratives.
  2. Mark had adoptionistic leanings (as we saw in the baptismal narrative).
  3. Mark was shorter, less complete, especially as regards the teachings.
  4. Mark lacked resurrection appearances (this shortage was, of course, explicitly noticed and remedied in the spurious longer ending).

In fact, I suspect that the only thing that kept Mark going, as it were, was its early and close association with the apostle Peter.

Ben.
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Old 05-12-2008, 08:43 AM   #252
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So you'd grandfather him in, even though he doesn't have a degree from an accredited institution?
Since he was long dead before any of our accredited institutions existed, that seems to be appropriate.

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Many professionals disagree with your assessment on this.
OK. I think it tends to dilute the import of actually finishing one's degree, though.

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In particular, I've known a few really competent and insightful ABD's who are professionals, one of whom is know a PhD but really inspired me before he was.
If they are paid to be an historian despite not having their PhD, I would have to say they were "actual historians". I didn't realize that was possible and, again, think it tends to take away from those who did complete all their work.

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Ah, but your original post didn't say "professional" historian - it merely said ""actual" historian".
It seems to me my use of the term indicated I was using it in that way.

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Professionals are those with a job researching history, no? ABD's and MA's can have that distinction then.
OK

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What about lecturers who are working on their MA?
If they are getting paid for their knowledge of history, I would tend to say "yes".

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Care to define the distinctions?
My thinking is that one would want to go with the more specific expertise rather than the general description. I know in my general field of psychology, few simply describe themselves as "psychologist" when it is a question of their area of expertise. You get "Clinician", "Experimental", and "School" specifications. I assume other professional fields tend to do the same. Why wouldn't you?

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Also, since this is only tangential to the original thread, feel free to split it and give it its own thread. I'd love to keep discussing this matter with you.
I was thinking it was a sign that this thread was in its death throes.

You really think this tangent has legs? I would be surprised if the interest goes beyond the two of us. We could always go PM. I feel like we should be in a bar, though.

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Are we using self-categorization to determine who qualifies as an historian?
Who better than the person who earned the degree?

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When someone asks, "Is anyone here a doctor!", does the Doctor of Philosophy who researched Pliny's topographical anomalies come up to the wounded and say, "Yes, I'm a doctor."?
I wouldn't say that was an analogous situation given the rather significant differences between the consequences of an incorrect identification.
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Old 05-12-2008, 08:45 AM   #253
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Crossan discusses this somewhere and actually concludes that Mark got it right, while Josephus was shading things a bit.

I really do not have a very good answer, either, except to say that it looks like Josephus is answering something here, as if he is arguing against a prevalent view (not for the forgiveness of sins... only if the soul was already pure).
Crossan is who I had in mind as well but I couldn't find it in any of his books that I own.

IIRC, it seemed to relate to the priesthood of Josephus' time. Wouldn't they have had a particular issue with the notion of John offering a baptism of repentance?
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Old 05-12-2008, 10:09 AM   #254
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Crossan is who I had in mind as well but I couldn't find it in any of his books that I own.
I own only The Historical Jesus and The Birth of Christianity. But I do not have access to either of them at the moment. I am thinking the discussion is to be found in the former, but not necessarily in part 3; probably part 2.

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IIRC, it seemed to relate to the priesthood of Josephus' time. Wouldn't they have had a particular issue with the notion of John offering a baptism of repentance?
That is exactly the issue. If all one has to do to receive forgiveness for sins is to get dunked in a river, what happens to the sacrificial system?

My only issue is this, and I do not think Crossan discusses it (again going on memory alone): If Josephus simply disagrees with John the baptist on this matter, why not just say so? Why does he try to spare John from being mistaken? Why not simply say that he baptized to forgive sins, but it was not a good idea to do so?

Ben.
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Old 05-12-2008, 10:34 AM   #255
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I own only The Historical Jesus and The Birth of Christianity. But I do not have access to either of them at the moment. I am thinking the discussion is to be found in the former, but not necessarily in part 3; probably part 2.
I know it isn't in the latter. I've got the former, though, so I'll look again when I get home.

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My only issue is this, and I do not think Crossan discusses it (again going on memory alone): If Josephus simply disagrees with John the baptist on this matter, why not just say so? Why does he try to spare John from being mistaken? Why not simply say that he baptized to forgive sins, but it was not a good idea to do so?
That matches my memory as well. IIRC, he just offers a possible reason and moves on.
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Old 05-12-2008, 11:29 AM   #256
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In fact, I suspect that the only thing that kept Mark going, as it were, was its early and close association with the apostle Peter.

Ben.
But, where do you find any credible information that Peter had a close associate named Mak who wrote a gospel according to the re-collection of Peter?

Based on Eusebius in "Church History", "Mark" had already written his gospel according to the re-collection of "Peter" while Philo of Alexandria was alive, sometime around the middle of the 1st century, and not around 70 CE or later.

And Mark is only named an as author around one hunded and thirty years after Philo , for the first time, in "Against Heresies" by Irenaeus, written in the late 2nd century.

"Church History" 2.6
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And they say that this Mark was the first that was sent to Egypt, and that he proclaimed the Gospel which he had written, and first established churches in Alexandria.

And the multitude of believers, both men and women, that were collected there at the very outset.........was so great, that Philo thought it worthwhile to decribe their pursuits, their meetings, their entertainments, and their whole manner of life."
I suspect that "Mark" did not write any Gospel.
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Old 05-12-2008, 11:58 AM   #257
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[QUOTE=aa5874;5330501]
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Originally Posted by Ben C Smith View Post
In fact, I suspect that the only thing that kept Mark going, as it were, was its early and close association with the apostle Peter.

Ben.
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But, where do you find any credible information that Peter had a close associate named Mak who wrote a gospel according to the re-collection of Peter?
I did not claim here that Peter or Mark had anything actually to do with the gospel. I claimed that Papias associated Peter with the gospel very early on.

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Old 05-12-2008, 12:19 PM   #258
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Crossan is who I had in mind as well but I couldn't find it in any of his books that I own.
I own only The Historical Jesus and The Birth of Christianity. But I do not have access to either of them at the moment. I am thinking the discussion is to be found in the former, but not necessarily in part 3; probably part 2.

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IIRC, it seemed to relate to the priesthood of Josephus' time. Wouldn't they have had a particular issue with the notion of John offering a baptism of repentance?
That is exactly the issue. If all one has to do to receive forgiveness for sins is to get dunked in a river, what happens to the sacrificial system?

My only issue is this, and I do not think Crossan discusses it (again going on memory alone): If Josephus simply disagrees with John the baptist on this matter, why not just say so? Why does he try to spare John from being mistaken? Why not simply say that he baptized to forgive sins, but it was not a good idea to do so?

Ben.
I think this is further evidence of how much in flux Judaism was in the first century. Much of what we think of as first-century Judaism is a retrojection from what Judaism later became, and in no small measure Judaism took the later form that it did, due to the growing influence of Christianity.
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Old 05-12-2008, 01:46 PM   #259
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Since he was long dead before any of our accredited institutions existed, that seems to be appropriate.
So is the title historian dependent on the time period in which a person lives?

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OK. I think it tends to dilute the import of actually finishing one's degree, though.
For historical studies, it's not the biggest deal. You should never stop working on it, but time constraints, etc. I'm sure you understand. It's different than a medical doctor.

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If they are paid to be an historian despite not having their PhD, I would have to say they were "actual historians". I didn't realize that was possible and, again, think it tends to take away from those who did complete all their work.
It's different than an MD. Not only is it possible, it was, if I understand correctly, at one time common.

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It seems to me my use of the term indicated I was using it in that way.
Quod videtur non semper est quod est.

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My thinking is that one would want to go with the more specific expertise rather than the general description. I know in my general field of psychology, few simply describe themselves as "psychologist" when it is a question of their area of expertise. You get "Clinician", "Experimental", and "School" specifications. I assume other professional fields tend to do the same. Why wouldn't you?
Sure you would, but historical studies is the general field, like psychology is the general field. I know of very few people who study history as history, and usually we just call them philosophers.

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You really think this tangent has legs? I would be surprised if the interest goes beyond the two of us. We could always go PM. I feel like we should be in a bar, though.
I'm always up for that.

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I wouldn't say that was an analogous situation given the rather significant differences between the consequences of an incorrect identification.
Heh, so its a matter of degrees (no pun intended).

Ok...so pun intended.
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Old 05-12-2008, 02:32 PM   #260
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So is the title historian dependent on the time period in which a person lives?
In the context of what historians participate in BC&H, yes. When you start time trawling characters in from the past, all bets are off and new rules have to developed.

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For historical studies, it's not the biggest deal. You should never stop working on it, but time constraints, etc. I'm sure you understand. It's different than a medical doctor....It's different than an MD. Not only is it possible, it was, if I understand correctly, at one time common.
I did not know that.

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Quod videtur non semper est quod est.
What is "videtur"?

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Sure you would, but historical studies is the general field, like psychology is the general field. I know of very few people who study history as history, and usually we just call them philosophers.
Then, I would include any of the specialities on the list.

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I'm always up for that.
As always with anyone who makes the journey to The Last Frontier, the first round is on me. :thumbs:
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