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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Are you seriously suggesting
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no, i'm telling you what i have learned from other people who have studied the phenomena.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
that all Egyptian priests walked around with stiffened snakes in their hands just in case somebody might one day pull a stunt like this?
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they don't have to walk around with snakes in order to reproduce the trick. they just need to have knowledge of how to perform the trick.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Furthermore, both Moses and God were so monumentally stupid that they didn't know this?
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of course they knew about it. the bible claims they performed it first.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You're still not making any sense. You're still not addressing how these "naturalistic explanations" would actually fit into the Biblical account. WHY would God instruct Moses to perform "miracles" that the Egyptian priests were already prepared to duplicate, with apparently miraculous foreknowledge?
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i guess because He knew He would eventually perform one that they couldn't reproduce. which is what the bible claims happened.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Isn't it obvious? He was trying to communicate, yes? When there's a humongous set of 150-foot-high walls protecting the city, why mention another set of inconsequential walls somewhere else, without clarifying?
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exactly. he didn't clarify
only the set of walls surrounding the island. he was referring to the walls in general just like he referred to other general aspects of tyre.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
The only means of inflicting "downfall" that is mentioned by Ezekiel is attack by human armies.
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incorrect. "I will" in verses 13 and 14 refer to the ultimate destruction of tyre, not the human armies.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
...Ah, I forgot: you don't understand the meaning of the word "only". More on this later.
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this is another case of you reading something into the text that isn't there. you seem to think ezekiel contains the word "only" when referring to the walls. or that genesis refers to "only" for the reason of the explusion.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Nope: Tyre, as the MERCHANTS knew it, was unaffected.
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actually, since the city-state of tyre would at some point not exist (as is the case today), tyre's wealth is a thing of the past.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Nope, the "rock" is Tyre, the island.
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not entirely. tyre included the mainland as well. that's where the monarchy was.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
That's what the word "Tyre" actually means.
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that still doesn't show that tyre didn't include the mainland.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You also delibrately cut off the following words: "...thou shalt be built no more". The mainland settlement was rebuilt.
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but the city-state was not. it doesn't exist and hasn't existed for a long, long time.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Ezekiel would presumably have known other uninhabited cities. Tyre was going to be like them, permanently.
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ezekiel may have known of uninhabited cities, but that doesn't mean he was referring to tyre as one of them. otherwise, he wouldn't have used the word "like".
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
This really is pointless. The failure is abundantly clear, even to Jews and Christians.
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the only thing that's clear is that people are divided on the issue.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Here, an honest Christian confronts this problem:
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because the author is capable of posting a webpage doesn't mean they are correct, whether christian or non-christian.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Biological evolution. We evolved as social animals (as I already pointed out).
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yes, you're great at repeating yourself without actually answering the question. what is socially acceptable to one culture or one species is not for another. evolution does not produce these kinds of ideas. clearly this notion of society can be broken down into good and evil as i stated earlier. so what is good, evil, justice or injustice?
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Of course they'd "learn"! The information would be placed in the brain: that's what learning IS!
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as i said, an omnipotent being intellectually raping someone is not learning.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
And the "free-will defense" does not apply here, as only information is being imparted.
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what do you think freewill comes from? it comes from information. a person, in their mind, makes a choice and then acts on that choice. stamping someone's brain with ineluctable information obviates choice.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
What possible reason would there be for an "omnimax" God to inflict pain?
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if you're referring to pain caused by people, because God respects our choice to hurt other people. if you're referring to gratuitous evil, because uncertainty is an important element of the human condition and because God can use this type of suffering for ultimate good.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
...And let's not forget that the "doctor analogy" was YOURS. It was based entirely on the fact that a human doctor doesn't have the power to make all treatments painless. Therefore it is worthless as an analogy.
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actually, it's not. you're assuming that God could make life painless and still respect freewill.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Have you spotted the contradiction between your "no we don't" and your "overrides the instinct to preserve the species"? This is the instinct we don't even have, yes?
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not really. the "no" was referring to the instinct to preserve the species. the second sentence is referring to the instinct to preserve self. so evolution has provided these conflicting instincts which cause us to do all kinds of things. this notion that evolution has provided the idea of society is ridiculous. evolution has produced confusing ideas, if anything. every society is different and endorses different forms of justice. the question remains how do we categorize what is good and what is not?
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
As I've said already, I see no need to further address the "bfniii principle". You have abandoned any pretense that God is "just",
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i most certainly have not. i am saying that God can appear to be unjust at times, but our perception is often clouded by false expectations.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
and have chosen to worship an amoral monster.
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what is your definition of amoral?
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You are fantasising again. Nowhere is this mentioned, and the context refers to the person's men, beasts and fields that he owns.
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this is a perfect example of a jackism. i responded with an explanation as to how it does refer to a person volunteering. do you respond to that explanation? no, you just repeat your original statement which i suppose makes you feel better.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Your reliance on unsupported fantasies makes me wonder why you're a Christian at all, let alone an "inerrantist". Why not go your own way, invent your personal religion?
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this comes from a person who thinks genesis portrays us as stealing freewill from God. there are several other examples of you inserting your own made up words into the text. we can discuss those examples if you like.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
And you were simply wrong. The Flood can indeed be accurately dated: this was pointed out at the time, and since.
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oh lots of people think they can accurately date the flood anywhere from 2000bc to 10000bc. and some people say there was no flood. with such a wide range of opinions, history seems to be silent on the issue right now.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
I have never claimed that the Bible specifically says "...and this was the only reason", or something similar. But it is nevertheless a simple fact that the reason given IS the only reason stated. This is because NO OTHER reason is stated. That's what the word "only" MEANS. When ONE reason is stated, and no OTHER reason is stated, the reason stated is the ONLY reason stated.
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but the reason that is stated was precipitated by the reasons given in the prior verses. to ignore them is to take verse 23 out of context. if you ignore the disobedience as the precipitating event, you are assuming that God would have had a problem with adam eating from the tree of life regardless of the tree of knowledge. if you make that assumption, you must provide quotes from the text that supports that position. the text seems to imply that God did not have a problem with adam eating from the tree of life until after he disobeyed.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
I suggest enrolling on a remedial English-language class.
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is that going to help you stop inserting words into the texts or taking verses out of context?
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
When it's an issue of who is factually correct: yes, the majority IS usually right.
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ok. logic 101. that is called an appeal to numbers and it's a logical fallacy. it didn't work when copernicus posited the heliocentric model and it doesn't work now. their argument is not correct just because there are more of them.
what is your defintion of "usually"? that's a subjective term that you are unable to quantify.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Exceptions occur only where the majority has inadequate access to relevant information, the truth is counter-intuitive, or the minority is in a position to know better (because they have either information or skills that the majority lacks).
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here you commit another fallacy. your so-called minority is of the same religous background as the majority. in fact, they were from the same era and the same locale at the same time. so again, which set of jews is correct?
by your own reasoning (of which there is tangible support), you should side with your so-called minority because the truth of a supernatural, backwoods, healing, non-political, non-militant messiah is counter-intuitive to the common, contemporaneous jewish belief. under your own (unsupportable) rules, this would qualify as an exception to the majority being correct.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
None of these are relevant factors here. The minority who convert aren't generally expert scholars: they tend to be the young and vulnerable.
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but there are scholars who are christians. so now the question is how many scholars do you require of christianity in order for it to be legitimate?
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Did you know that "Jews for Jesus", responsible for converting numerous Jewish students to Christianity, is a front for the explicitly Christian "Campus Crusade for Christ" movement?
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which, of course, is irrelevant. what is relevant is that jews convert to christianity even today. they forego orthodox judaism in the belief that Jesus was the messiah referred to in the OT. why are they incorrect?
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You seem to be attempting a "reverse argumentum ad populum" fallacy: the minority who convert are right BECAUSE they are the minority.
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i have done no such thing. i have merely asked you, many times now, why you think the ones who didn't convert are the correct ones
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
You are STILL EVADING my question:
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i realize you don't like my answer, but i'm not avoiding anything. i have tried to respond to every single word you post. i have been here from the beginning of this long thread and i'm not going anywhere so feel free to drop this ridiculous accusation anytime. save yourself some keystrokes and stick to the point.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
you're still not providing me with an explanation of what YOU think the reason is that most Jews reject Christianity. What do YOU think their "problem" is, exactly?
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i have provided at least one answer; that being they tend to ignore or misinterpret isaiah 53
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
A statement of your personal fantasy (in this case: that some Jews have always been monotheistic) is not a "rebuttal".
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it's not my statement. it's a fact that there are jews who believe the torah is an accurate representation of their history, i.e. monotheistic from the beginning. instead of this non-response, how about explaining to these jews why they are wrong about their own history.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Those are the ones who are ignorant of the history of their religion.
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1. so they are historically authoritative enough to know that Jesus does or doesn't fulfill messianic prophecies but not enough to know whether their religion was always monotheistic?
2. by what authority do you know which jews are accurate about their theistic history and messianic prophecy fulfillment and which ones aren't? even if you are one of the most prominent jewish scholars of all time, that doesn't mean you speak for every jew from all time nor does it mean you are correct.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
Fundamentalism, whether Jewish or Christian, requires rejection of scholarly findings:
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this is probably the most inaccurate statement you have made in this entire thread. well, stealing freewill from God was pretty bad. anyway, did christians reject the extra-biblical evidence for pilate when it was found? did christians reject the harmony between the existing manuscripts and the dead sea scrolls when they were found? even when the helicentric theory was verified, christians didn't reject it. we could go on and on with examples. in fact, many scientific discoveries were made by christians in the hope of better understanding God's creation.
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Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless
rejection of "meta-knowledge" of the mundane origins of the religion (we've seen that already with Daniel). This does not, however, imply ignorance of what THEIR religion (modern, monotheistic Judaism) requires of its messiah.
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i can't say that i'm following these two statements.