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Old 08-26-2005, 08:11 AM   #11
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1. The variations in divine names is meaningful; the variation has intent. It is of course plausible that the different names, while no less meaningful, were already a part of the source material.

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If you add to this that God "created" and Lord God "formed" it is easy to conclude that Lord God formed that which had been created by God. This idea spells "essence precedes existence" which allows for ex nihilo creation and lets the evolutionary process to form itself after the Intelligent Design that is built inside the species. In Gen.1 this designer is called God who himself is not as a material cause but remains the first cause of all creation.
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Old 08-26-2005, 08:12 AM   #12
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Forgive the choppiness of the following translation:
If you'd noticed I gave a rather literal translation in my last post. I don't really understand why you concocted the following...

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Originally Posted by CJD
"And every shrub the field, being prior he was on the Earth, and every herb the field before he had sprouted, since not he had made rain, YHWH Elohim, upon the Earth and man being not to serve the ground.

"But mist he went up from the Earth and he watered all ones being surface the ground."
It adds nothing to the discourse except confusion -- "choppiness" is a euphemism here.

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Originally Posted by CJD
I know it's small, but should it be "but mist" or "and mist"? Why do most translations go with the former (choosing nonsense over sense)?
You should know the answer. w is a conjunction which is usually translated as "and" but is also used in contrastive situations and therefore gets translated as "but". It doesn't make any difference in the Hebrew and I used "and" for the sake of the literalness of the translation.

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Originally Posted by CJD
I don't think chap. 2 being an expansion on chap. 1 is a stretch,
But I already knew your position. You will happily ignore v2:4, as though it didn't exist, then forget the fact that the world in ch 2 is a dry world which needed that mist to kickstart events, yet ch 1 was a world formed out of water.

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Originally Posted by CJD
... and that for a very simple reason: the geography of the text. We often miss the geographical reading of the text.
Geography seems to be an eminently ill-suited term here.

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Originally Posted by CJD
And the theme of the text is clearly vegetation and humanity — a theme, I might add, inextricably tied to the previous account. Heterogeneous, maybe. But in its final form, inextricably tied to the former via theme (Day 3b — Day 6b = Vegetation — Humanity).
There isn't too much that you can get wrong in this simplicity. You leave out of course god's remaking of cattle birds and other animals, though of course you know that birds weren't created on day 6, but day 5. However, the second creation is simpler than the first so there are fewer elements in it. The order of creation is still different from what you would like it to be in your hypothetical expansion, because god creates man before the birds and the animals. It really doesn't give any indication of being an expansion, hence your claim is quite a stretch.

In fact, I would accuse you of deliberately manipulating the text to suit your purposes if I didn't think it was just your active religiously motivated preprocessor.

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Originally Posted by CJD
1. The variations in divine names is meaningful; the variation has intent. YHWH is used when god's covenant love or relationship with Israel is in view (see Gen. 11:27–16:16). Elohim is used when god is being spoken of as the god over all nations — the universal god (see Gen. 17:3–22:24).
So the names combined means the sum of their singular usages...

This is more eisegesis.

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Originally Posted by CJD
2. The "sister-wife" stores and other doublets, to my mind, can no more be designated disparate renditions of a single historical event than they can be deemed repetitions and parallels in a unified narrative to emphasize something (i.e., strategy over strata; see R. Alter's The Art of Biblical Narrative, 47–62). Source criticism is notoriously tendentious, and may well tell us more about the critic than they text itself.
As we are dealing with literary works, it would be difficult for me to use "historical" in this context or think it any way applicable.

In the sentence "Source criticism is notoriously tendentious", "is" is extremely tendentious on your part. Surely, "can be" is a safer probably more accurate verbal form for the clause. At the same time I'd say that for explanatory power nothing approaches the credibility of source criticism. My interest was in the manifestations noted and their implications, not where they came from.

Alter is not in a position to explain why for example there are three diverse narratives which tell the same story with the same figures in two and a different set of patriarches in the third with the pharaoh in one and the king of Gerar in the other two.


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Old 08-26-2005, 09:06 AM   #13
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If you'd noticed I gave a rather literal translation in my last post. I don't really understand why you concocted the following...

It adds nothing to the discourse except confusion -- "choppiness" is a euphemism here.
Yes, your translation was okay, but it didn't point out what I wanted it to. Which was …

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You should know the answer. w is a conjunction which is usually translated as "and" but is also used in contrastive situations and therefore gets translated as "but". It doesn't make any difference in the Hebrew and I used "and" for the sake of the literalness of the translation.
Most every translation does translate it as if it were a contrastive situation. Just curious, that's all.

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But I already knew your position. You will happily ignore v2:4, as though it didn't exist,
I don't ignore the toledot; it is, after all, the signal marker for the beginning of each of the ten books of Genesis. This account pertains to what the cosmos has generated, not the generations of the cosmos. Key point, elementary even; you don't get it. What gives?

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then forget the fact that the world in ch 2 is a dry world which needed that mist to kickstart events, yet ch 1 was a world formed out of water.
Not sure how this relates, when the toledot in 2:4 signifies what the cosmos has generated …


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Geography seems to be an eminently ill-suited term here.
Land, plants, animals on the land that eat the plants. "Geography's" okay; not the best; but not promiscuous either.

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You leave out of course god's remaking of cattle birds and other animals, though of course you know that birds weren't created on day 6, but day 5. … However, the second creation is simpler than the first so there are fewer elements in it. The order of creation is still different from what you would like it to be in your hypothetical expansion, because god creates man before the birds and the animals. It really doesn't give any indication of being an expansion, hence your claim is quite a stretch.
But the literary structure of the days aren't employed by the implied author at this point in the narrative. Given that chap. 1 reflects a literary framework employed to accentuate Sabbatical theology, the "order" of creation is neither here nor there. Insist on imposing modern, cosmological notions to the text and it's no wonder you see the silliness you do.

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In fact, I would accuse you of deliberately manipulating the text to suit your purposes if I didn't think it was just your active religiously motivated preprocessor.
How would you like me to respond? That you're a godless atheist hell-bent on satiating his desire to relegate any supernatural revelation whatsoever to the shelf to achieve some semblance of justification for your ungratefulness (reflected both in words and actions) to your creator?

No, I won't do that. I won't stoop to your level. Because I really don't believe what I wrote above.


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So the names combined means the sum of their singular usages...
No. The various names are used because they connote different things. Why is this even disputed? "The universal god created all; by the way, he goes by the name YHWH (covenant Lord) to us Israelites. And he alone is worthy of worship." That's the gist of the Deuteronomist's theology.

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As we are dealing with literary works, it would be difficult for me to use "historical" in this context or think it any way applicable.
Good. Then you see my point?

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In the sentence "Source criticism is notoriously tendentious", "is" is extremely tendentious on your part. Surely, "can be" is a safer probably more accurate verbal form for the clause.
Okay. But are you saying source critics typically share some kind of consensus on these issues today? Would that not lead us to say that given the ridiculous amount of differing theories about these matters that something more subjective, i.e., tendentious, is going on?

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At the same time I'd say that for explanatory power nothing approaches the credibility of source criticism.
Again, as if it's a monolith.

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My interest was in the manifestations noted and their implications, not where they came from.
And my explanation is no less credible than that of the plethora of explanations (most often contradictory) profferd by source critics. It's a start, at least. And it further gives the benefit of the doubt that the implied author was not an idiot, and enjoyed weaving (just as ancient audiences presumably did in reading it) repetitions, parallels, etc. into a unified whole. Just because we moderns have lost the art of storytelling does not mean the ancients never had it.

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Old 08-26-2005, 11:57 AM   #14
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Originally Posted by CJD
Most every translation does translate it as if it were a contrastive situation. Just curious, that's all.
Rubbish. You were not simply curious. You demonstrated you didn't understand, as also displayed by the "translation" you supplied.

When giving a literal translation, you must stay with the most common meanings of the words used in the original otherwise it is not literal, hence the use of the simple "and". You don't translate the verb to include a pronominal subject when the actual subject is included in the text. You don't translate the same word different ways, unless there is a specific necessity for doing so. This is exceptional in its twistedness: "man being not to serve the ground". Was it a software translation? I can't really understand otherwise how such a gratuitous piece of stunning translation could have occurred. "[C]hoppiness", as I said, was not the word.

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Originally Posted by CJD
I don't ignore the toledot; it is, after all, the signal marker for the beginning of each of the ten books of Genesis. This account pertains to what the cosmos has generated, not the generations of the cosmos. Key point, elementary even; you don't get it. What gives?
The text says nothing about the cosmos. But toledoths appear at the beginning of the sections they apply to. What gives with you?

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Originally Posted by CJD
Not sure how this relates, when the toledot in 2:4 signifies what the cosmos has generated …
Why use a Greek term, which is not particularly relevant??

And you do realise the function of the toledoth as a unifying formula imposed on disparate sources. This makes the toledoth not part of the text being unified with the whole.

(The first creation account, while claiming to deal with the creation of the heavens as well as the earth, says nothing about the creation of the planets, meteors, comets, other moons, dust clouds galaxies, nebulae, black holes, double stars. It doesn't supply the origin of germs, viruses or funghi. Does all this detract from it being a general creation? I must admit that there is no toledoth for the first creation.)

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Originally Posted by CJD
But the literary structure of the days aren't employed by the implied author at this point in the narrative. Given that chap. 1 reflects a literary framework employed to accentuate Sabbatical theology, the "order" of creation is neither here nor there. Insist on imposing modern, cosmological notions to the text and it's no wonder you see the silliness you do.
You're sliding here. Backing out of your basic rationale about days. Then turn to simple ad hominem. You demonstrate that the "second creation" (as I call it) doesn't fit the format you implied, now you are becoming simply arbitrary in your application of ideas.

You also work on the notion that a seven day format is the overriding one, as though, like Gerald Ford, the writer couldn't walk and chew gum at the same time.

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Originally Posted by CJD
How would you like me to respond? That you're a godless atheist hell-bent on satiating his desire to relegate any supernatural revelation whatsoever to the shelf to achieve some semblance of justification for your ungratefulness (reflected both in words and actions) to your creator?
As the common mistake is, you bandy the term "atheist" where it literally is not appropriate. But it is only predictable.

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Originally Posted by CJD
No, I won't do that. I won't stoop to your level. Because I really don't believe what I wrote above.
There is another difference between us.

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Originally Posted by CJD
No. The various names are used because they connote different things. Why is this even disputed? "The universal god created all; by the way, he goes by the name YHWH (covenant Lord) to us Israelites. And he alone is worthy of worship." That's the gist of the Deuteronomist's theology.
Because it is your eisegesis.

And there aren't any real Israelites these days. There are Israelis, Jews, (neither of which have any direct connection with the term) and various other human categories, but those people referred to by the term "Israelite" were separated from their land and/or absorbed 2700 years ago.

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Originally Posted by CJD
Good. Then you see my point?
Please run it by me again. Points have seemed particularly obscure in your comments so far.

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Originally Posted by CJD
Okay. But are you saying source critics typically share some kind of consensus on these issues today?
Yes, there is a certain consensus shared by source critics. It is the basic methodology. That every man and his dog might do it differently doesn't change the shared methodological approach.

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Originally Posted by CJD
Would that not lead us to say that given the ridiculous amount of differing theories about these matters that something more subjective, i.e., tendentious, is going on?
That there is agreement in details doesn't change the functionality of the method.

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Originally Posted by CJD
Again, as if it's a monolith.
This does not follow.

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Originally Posted by CJD
And my explanation is no less credible that of the plethora of explanations (most often contradictory) profferd by source critics.
This is called missing the forest for the trees. There is a plethora of different flavours of your religion, but I'm sure you won't reject all but your own. Eeek, you just might.

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Originally Posted by CJD
It's a start, at least.
The apparent start of yours doesn't seem to deal with the problems at hand.

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Originally Posted by CJD
And it further gives the benefit of the doubt that the implied author was not an idiot, and enjoyed weaving (just as ancient audiences presumably did) repetitions, parallels, etc. into a unified whole. Just because we moderns have lost the art of storytelling does not mean the ancients never had it.
A division such as "knows what he is doing according to your perception" as against "idiot" is not a particularly well thought out dilemma. A text which is composite doesn't require such a dilemma. It requires the desire of redactors to preserve materials from the past, redactors who often relate those materials, by placing them together or by combining them. This requires no unsupportable judgments on the writer(s) responsible for the latter form of the text.


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Old 08-26-2005, 01:14 PM   #15
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Rubbish. You were not simply curious. You demonstrated you didn't understand, as also displayed by the "translation" you supplied.
You misunderstand my intent, I gather. The woodness of the text I supplied was only brought out to question why most other translations agree with the "but" — in the constrastive sense (as opposed to the "and"). If I were translating the text, rest assured I would follow protocol. I really was just curious what you thought about it. You're so mean.


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The text says nothing about the cosmos.
Okay, "heavens and earth" then.

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And you do realise the function of the toledoth as a unifying formula imposed on disparate sources. This makes the toledoth not part of the text being unified with the whole.
I can't imagine they were just slapped on there.

(Most of your replies sound to me like "I, spin, don't like what you have to say." I'm not sure how to proceed.)

How is it that you avoid eisegesis every time you open your mouth regarding this text? Can you teach me? Must I renounce my religion so to do?

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This requires no unsupportable judgments on the writer(s) responsible for the latter form of the text.
I'll buy that. But damn those literary demons. They keep jumping out at me when I read the text.

One more thing (though I'm just dying to know what that other difference is between us): the implied author could arrange the form of the text and still convey notions of how the "heavens and the earth" were created. There is no reason to bifurcate; I simply don't see, however, the nature of the universe being discussed (i.e., 'reality' over 'myth'). I think the ancients understood, better than we, mythical elements in their stories.

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Old 08-26-2005, 01:55 PM   #16
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Default Apparent conflict between Genesis 1 and 2

Message to CJD: What do you think of James Holding? Who are your favorite Christian authors?
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Old 08-26-2005, 02:01 PM   #17
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You misunderstand my intent, I gather. The woodness of the text I supplied was only brought out to question why most other translations agree with the "but" — in the constrastive sense (as opposed to the "and"). If I were translating the text, rest assured I would follow protocol. I really was just curious what you thought about it. You're so mean.
This is called prevarication.

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Originally Posted by CJD
I can't imagine they were just slapped on there.
But you can imagine that there is no necessary close relation between the title given and the text titled.

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Originally Posted by CJD
(Most of your replies sound to me like "I, spin, don't like what you have to say." I'm not sure how to proceed.)
The best way, is to make your case based on clarity and evidence, not hedging and subterfuge.

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Originally Posted by CJD
How is it that you avoid eisegesis every time you open your mouth regarding this text? Can you teach me? Must I renounce my religion so to do?
The text comes first, not the theologically determined ideas. Raw data needs to manipulator to be able to change their position based on it, not what is used to constrain it.

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Originally Posted by CJD
I'll buy that. But damn those literary demons. They keep jumping out at me when I read the text.
Naturally this statement, which doesn't help elucidate anything, is clearly not transparent.

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Originally Posted by CJD
One more thing (though I'm just dying to know what that other difference is between us): the implied author could arrange the form of the text and still convey notions of how the "heavens and the earth" were created.
When you say "author", is this person from whom the original text springs or a redactor who brings texts together? Is it the writer who prefixes texts with toledoths? A redactor may simply be a compiler of texts, who gives passages titles, not reworks them. In fact reworking seems to be the road less traveled in the construction of these texts. One more often finds variations in sequence or threaded, not reworked.

2:4b talks of what happened on the day that YHWH elohim made the earth and the heavens, though what follows doesn't elucidate the making of the heavens. It would be sufficient to find 2:4b for a later redactor to add such a toledoth.


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Originally Posted by CJD
There is no reason to bifurcate; I simply don't see, however, the nature of the universe being discussed (i.e., 'reality' over 'myth'). I think the ancients understood, better than we, mythical elements in their stories.
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Old 08-26-2005, 02:42 PM   #18
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When you say "author", is this person from whom the original text springs or a redactor who brings texts together? Is it the writer who prefixes texts with toledoths? A redactor may simply be a compiler of texts, who gives passages titles, not reworks them. In fact reworking seems to be the road less traveled in the construction of these texts. One more often finds variations in sequence or threaded, not reworked.
By "author" I mean a plurality, but especially those who edited the text into its final form.

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2:4b talks of what happened on the day that YHWH elohim made the earth and the heavens, though what follows doesn't elucidate the making of the heavens. It would be sufficient to find 2:4b for a later redactor to add such a toledoth.
This is my understanding of 2:4: "This is what the universe generated when they were created, in the day YHWH elohim fashioned the heavens and earth."

The emphasis is not on the actual creation of the "heavens and earth" but what was generated from that creation. I'm sure this doesn't suffer too much from my "active religiously-motivated preprocessor." I just don't see a disparity between 2:4a and 2:4b. Maybe you're reading too much into 2:4b?

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Old 08-26-2005, 02:51 PM   #19
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Not to discount the value of the exchanges between Spin and CJD, I am very curious as to whether any of the other knowledgeable persons on the forum have an opinion on this issue.

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Old 08-26-2005, 04:21 PM   #20
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CJD, in light of your translations of Genesis 2:4, how would you translate Genesis 5:1?
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