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Old 04-21-2009, 12:14 PM   #171
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Originally Posted by andrewcriddle View Post
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Originally Posted by Loomis View Post
Okay. Yep. I see what you mean. You answered my question and I think you’re right.

So what was his rule of thumb?
As I previously suggested, I think Paul is looking for OT prophecies of Christ so he concentrates on passages (like Joel 2:32) which speak of what God is going to do. When such passages about what is going to happen use YHWH/KURIOS then Paul is liable to interpret them as prophecies fulfilled by Jesus. OT passages that do not have this future reference are less likely to be seen as referring to Christ.

Andrew Criddle
I’ll agree with that. Except that no ‘interpretations’ are really necessary. All that is necessary is that Paul could portray those verses as being prophecies. He didn’t have to believe it himself.
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Old 04-21-2009, 01:28 PM   #172
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It feels to me as if there is clear evidence of multiple authorship all over the New Testament, and whole Epistles and books - Luke and Acts - written as joiners.

What we are seeing with this lord stuff is multiple authorship. Again cannot software help here and give probabilities of statistical significance?

http://www.geocities.com/b_d_muller/rjohn.html

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From The Catholic Encyclopedia "... the theory advanced by the German scholar Vischer. He holds the Apocalypse to have been originally a purely Jewish composition, and to have been changed into a Christian work by the insertion of those sections that deal with Christian subjects. From a doctrinal point of view, we think, it cannot be objected to. There are other instances where inspired writers have availed themselves of non-canonical literature. Intrinsically considered it is not improbable. The Apocalypse abounds in passages which bear no specific Christian character but, on the contrary, show a decidedly Jewish complexion."
If this is true of Revelation, and I agree it is the case with Paul, why not the gospels and throughout the new testament? It was published explicitly as one work!
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