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12-04-2007, 05:34 AM | #21 | |
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Secondly, I understand that some Christians can think that "the bible must be treated differently". Thirdly, I am quite able to understand that the gospels and the other texts of the NT are older than their first citation. And I am also able to understand that the present versions of the gospels have perhaps some differences with their first versions, of which we know nothing (presently). Fourth point, I consider myself as an agnostic about the question HJ or MJ. Fifth point : I am very curious to get an explanation on this point : What exactly happened at the trial of Jesus, who is responsible for what, in this trial ? I have been brought up by atheistic parents of catholic origin, and during more than 50 years, I believed wrongly that the trial of JC was a "cold case", well known, well described. (If there was "a conspiracy" about the gospels, it was not so well devised !). |
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12-04-2007, 08:09 AM | #22 | ||
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Which brings us back to your question: Quote:
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12-04-2007, 08:52 AM | #23 |
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Amaleq13, I agree with you. But this opinion postpones the writings of the various gospels to around 80 CE, perhaps. And why such a variety of gospels ? This also, seems to point to the idea that there were many groups of Christians with their own interpretations of the religion.
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12-04-2007, 01:53 PM | #24 |
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I think your last sentence answers your question.
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12-04-2007, 08:54 PM | #25 |
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