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08-05-2004, 01:56 PM | #11 | |
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08-05-2004, 02:07 PM | #12 | |||
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Up until one moves out of their parent's house, one is in their parent's possession (i.e. they are their parents "property"). Look up property, all the definitions I could find included the word possession or possessed. So, again, if you are constructing your definition of slave as "a servant who is the man's money, his property", although a child wouldn't fall under the "man's money" category (unless he/she were adopted, I'm not sure how that whole thing works), the child would still fall under the "property" category (until he/she moves out of their parents house). So, by your definition, all people who still live with their parents are slaves. I thank you for the realization of this equivalent relationship. The slave/owner relationship in the bible is much like, and seemingly a parallel of, the child/father relationship in the bible. Now, if we look at it from this view, the fathers were told to beat their children, but only as a corrective measure, not to abuse them (fathers were even warned of this). Any act the father did upon the child was to be out of love for the child, not out of anger or frustration. This is how the slave/owner relationship is also depicted in the bible. The owners are allowed to beat their slaves, but not unnecessarily and not to the point of maiming them. |
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08-05-2004, 02:31 PM | #13 | |
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If all slaves were treated appropiately and correctly, as my father did me, there would be no negative connotation applied to slaves or slavery. But, since many slaves were abused, killed, raped, maimed, etc., which was not in accordance with the bibles regulations, there has been a negative association applied to "slavery" and "slaves." I, nor anybody, can do anything to reverse this. But, we can look at how the bible defines "slaves" and "slavery" and make clear and distinct separations between its (the bible's) definitions of the terms and what they have come to mean over time. |
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08-05-2004, 02:46 PM | #14 | |
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08-05-2004, 02:56 PM | #15 | ||
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Bible's regulations said that you had to submit to your master whether you were abused or not. Quote:
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08-05-2004, 02:58 PM | #16 |
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Children in today's households are not comparable to slaves in Biblical times, and your analogy is rather repulsive.
Slaves were beaten to give them an incentive to work, since there was no monetary incentive. |
08-05-2004, 03:05 PM | #17 | |
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We have a UN today. Without it, and it some cases with it, but defintely without it there would be dictatorships and the mistreating of people would happen constantly. Is it "immoral" not to have a UN, or is the UN in place just because without it people would act up and things would get chaotic. Can the same be said about slavery? If conducted properly, by the regulations of the bible, slavery is not "immoral". But maybe this entity you know, which goes around claiming things immoral or moral is correct...and maybe Mormonism is too. Because, as history shows, people will oppress and exploit others in a slavery system, thus we must remove it. Does that make slavery incorrect, or the people that implement it. If I tell someone to bowl a strike and you will win the game, but the individual doesn't do what I say, does that make bowling a strike the wrong method to win? |
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08-05-2004, 03:13 PM | #18 | |
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And WE did, WE determined slavery to be immoral, because we recognized, after some travail, that the right to individual life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness, individual freedom, should extend to all. The rise of individualism and the recongnition of basic human rights doomed slavery. Once you recognize basic human rights, eventually you have to recognize that one of those rights should be the right not to be owned by another human being. And I'm sure that many SLAVES recognized slavery as immoral long before the rest of the world came to see it that way. |
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08-06-2004, 02:44 AM | #19 | |
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08-06-2004, 07:56 AM | #20 | ||
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I'm probably quite dumb as you are most likely thinking right now, but your logic baffles me. |
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