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Old 07-20-2009, 12:05 PM   #11
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'No discussion either of the most salient aspect in the written documentation for this sentence: the fact that written references to this sentence, complete with "Jesus, him called Christ", are extant almost immediately upon Josephus's writing it....'

Gosh! I wonder where written references to this sentence are?

Notice that Chaucer dare not say that that sentence is quoted....
It's cited three times by Origen in the third century C.E. It's also cited by Eusebius a couple of generations later, but I sometimes wonder about Eusebius (and he's one reason why I frankly trust Antiq. 18 less than Antiq. 20).

Sincerely,

Chaucer
'Almost immediately' means more than a century later.

And Chaucer has the sheer GALL to accuse other people of dishonesty.

And, of course, Origen never quotes that sentence.

Here is what Origen writes 'For in the 18th book of his Antiquities of the Jews, Josephus bears witness to John as having been a Baptist, and as promising purification to those who underwent the rite. Now this writer, although not believing in Jesus as the Christ, in seeking after the cause of the fall of Jerusalem and the destruction of the temple, whereas he ought to have said that the conspiracy against Jesus was the cause of these calamities befalling the people, since they put to death Christ, who was a prophet, says nevertheless— being, although against his will, not far from the truth— that these disasters happened to the Jews as a punishment for the death of James the Just, who was a brother of Jesus (called Christ),— the Jews having put him to death, although he was a man most distinguished for his justice.'

Let me see.

Where is the reference to Antiquities 20 in there, or any claim that Ant. 20 contained a reference to James?

And where does Josephus say 'these disasters happened to the Jews as a punishment for the death of James the Just....'?

And where does Josephus say 'although he was a man most distinguished for his justice.'?


Chaucer should stop calling people dishonest when he is caught faking references which do not exist.
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Old 07-20-2009, 12:14 PM   #12
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Origen in commentary on Matthew says
'And to so great a reputation among the people for righteousness did this James rise, that Flavius Josephus, who wrote the "Antiquities of the Jews" in twenty books, when wishing to exhibit the cause why the people suffered so great misfortunes that even the temple was razed to the ground, said, that these things happened to them in accordance with the wrath of God in consequence of the things which they had dared to do against James the brother of Jesus who is called Christ.'

This does not actually place a reference to James in Book 20. It just says that Ant. was in 20 books.

And it clearly does not reflect what Josephus actually wrote, so can't be quoted to support any text of Josephus.
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Old 07-20-2009, 12:28 PM   #13
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Honestly, though, someone like Josephus hardly counts as a Christian writer. Now I get ShowNoMercy's point that Josephus only uses the term Christ twice. But I would counter that by saying it's hardly surprising that he would apply the term Christ to someone whose main frame of reference in the public mind may have been little else. Others also cited by ShowNoMercy simply had other distinguishing characteristics in addition. Moreover, my guess is that Josephus most likely used the Christ term once, not twice, since I view the Antiq. 18 reference as suspect, whereas all the indices point to Antiq. 20 being from Josephus's own pen.

Sincerely,

Chaucer
Of course!

Josephus very cleverly backreferenced this James to a reference that later interpolators would make in Ant. 18.
Why is it even necessary to assume a back reference? Josephus could just as easily have made it clear which Jesus is being referred to by citing the term most associated with his name and nothing more. Since James is incidental here, then so is Jesus, and no elaborate background or back reference is needed for Jesus either.

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And Josephus cleverly did so using a bit of Matthew 1:16, knowing that nobody would mistake that for a Christian interpolation.

The authorities just *could* have deposed the High Priest because he upset the population so much by having one of the blaspheming Christians killed, who were claiming that a man was God.
No, he upset the authorities by rushing a condemnation process that should have waited until all the proper officials were at the scene. The one condemned could just as well have been the man in the moon. What so upset those who complained was the flouting of the authority of those additional officials who should have been in on all the decision-making.

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This was the ultimate blasphemy to Jews, who apparently allowed such a sect to be in Jerusalem for decades before killing its leader James.

This killing of a blasphemer *could* have upset the Jews so much that the High Priest could have been deposed.
Again, the nature of the ones condemned could not have been more unimportant to them.

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And then the Jews *could* have made Jesus, son of Damnaeus , High Priest as compensation for the fact that the James who was killed just happened to have a brother called Jesus.

A different Jesus, of course, but if a brother of one Jesus is killed, then justice would demand that the brother of a different Jesus is put into his place.
I will mention here one additional aspect that did strike me forcibly on rereading the original Josephus passage just now: Rather than viewing Josephus's reference toward the end of the paragraph to a Jesus, son of Damneus, in the way you do, I was newly struck by the fact that "son of Damneus" is written here rather than earlier when James is first mentioned. The implication seems clear that this latter Jesus "son of Damneus" is being introduced at the end for the first time here, and that consequently the Jesus referenced alongside James has to be some other Jesus altogether.

In fact, it's even plausible that Josephus specifies the latter Jesus as "son of Damneus" at the end partly because an altogether different Jesus has indeed been referenced earlier in the paragraph and Josephus wants to make it clear that the latter Jesus is different from the one referenced earlier -- the one called the Christ.

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And then the authors of Luke/Acts,James, Jude would all try to whitewash from church records all mention of this James ever having seen Jesus, let alone having been a brother of Jesus.
You can't have it both ways. On the one hand, we're evidently to suppose that manipulative Christians Trojan-horsed into a secular narrative's account of one James a "bogus" James whose brother was Jesus, called Christ. But on the other, manipulative Christians wanted all mention of this "bogus" James removed from Luke/Acts. That doesn't compute.

Personally, a consensus (among several competing ones) recently emerging from certain researchers at the Jesus Seminar seems more plausible: So much of Jesus's interaction with his family in Mark is latent cause for embarrassment, both on account of his behavior having suggested insanity to them, and on account of the growing emphasis on his "divine parentage" having necessitated playing down any siblings at all. That is one reason, along with Mark's earlier dating, that makes me distrust Luke/Acts' lack of mention of Jesus' brother James.

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Old 07-20-2009, 12:35 PM   #14
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You seem to be defending what is in fact the mainstream position: that there was somebody that the Jesus stories were based on, whether or not he was a messiah, magician or whatever (see Dan Brown). This might be true, but I'd like to see more evidence than the testimony of Christian writers, who obviously had a vested interest in the gospel.
Honestly, though, someone like Josephus hardly counts as a Christian writer. Now I get ShowNoMercy's point that Josephus only uses the term Christ twice. But I would counter that by saying it's hardly surprising that he would apply the term Christ to someone whose main frame of reference in the public mind may have been little else. Others also cited by ShowNoMercy simply had other distinguishing characteristics in addition. Moreover, my guess is that Josephus most likely used the Christ term once, not twice, since I view the Antiq. 18 reference as suspect, whereas all the indices point to Antiq. 20 being from Josephus's own pen.

Sincerely,

Chaucer
The reason that people still argue about Josephus is because there's nothing else to look at. Whether or not the two famous passages (about Jesus and James) were interpolated or edited or whatever, the fact remains that outside of Josephus there's almost no "proof" that Christians existed at all until the 4th C.
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Old 07-20-2009, 12:40 PM   #15
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I will mention here one additional aspect that did strike me forcibly on rereading the original Josephus passage just now: Rather than viewing Josephus's reference toward the end of the paragraph to a Jesus, son of Damneus, in the way you do, I was newly struck by the fact that "son of Damneus" is written here rather than earlier when James is first mentioned. The implication seems clear that this latter Jesus "son of Damneus" is being introduced at the end for the first time here, and that consequently the Jesus referenced alongside James has to be some other Jesus altogether.
You are jumping wildly to conclusions here.

Introducing James as the brother of Jesus, and then later saying who this Jesus is is perfectly possible.

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You can't have it both ways. On the one hand, we're evidently to suppose that manipulative Christians Trojan-horsed into a secular narrative's account of one James a "bogus" James whose brother was Jesus, called Christ. But on the other, manipulative Christians wanted all mention of this "bogus" James removed from Luke/Acts. That doesn't compute.

That would begin to make sense if there was only ever one monolithic group of Christians with just one viewpoint.

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Personally, a consensus (among several competing ones) recently emerging from certain researchers at the Jesus Seminar seems more plausible: So much of Jesus's interaction with his family in Mark is latent cause for embarrassment, both on account of his behavior having suggested insanity to them, and on account of the growing emphasis on his "divine parentage" having necessitated playing down any siblings at all. That is one reason, along with Mark's earlier dating, that makes me distrust Luke/Acts' lack of mention of Jesus' brother James.

Chaucer
What? The Epistle of James and the Epistle of Jude ignore the fact that there was supposed to have been a James the brother of Jesus for some unknown reason.

And Luke/Acts whitewashes the leader of the church's own family connection out of history? How would he have got away with that, if James really had been the brother of Jesus?

By not talking about the 800-pound gorilla in the room, Luke/Acts hoped nobody would realise that this James had been a brother of Jesus?
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Old 07-20-2009, 04:44 PM   #16
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but I sometimes wonder about Eusebius

Sincerely,

Chaucer
There are very good reasons to wonder about Eusebius.
Eusebius was probably a mercenary propagandist author
in the employ of Constantine, who is arguably portrayable
as a fascist because he selected not just to support the
"new and strange" christian cult, but to utterly destroy
and prohibit all other traditional religious cults c.324 CE,
prior to the ratifications of this initiative at Nicaea.
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Old 07-20-2009, 11:44 PM   #17
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I just want to juxtapose these two paragraphs:

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<removed for consistency>

<snip>

To be even blunter about this, one chief concern I have about this Jesus mythicist program is the way their dishonest methods might really take off, if they're not checked right now, and bleed over into successful denialist agendas aimed at other crucial hinges in history like the Armenian genocide, the Trail of Tears, the Nazi holocaust, the McCarthy era, the Flight 93 heroes, Stalin's gulags, the Guantanamo gulag, the Allende assassination, ante-bellum slavery, the Salem witch trials, the Rwanda genocide, Srebenica, the Spanish Inquisition, and on and on. It's no joke. Whether or not you accept the Christian creed, the way the Roman Empire treated not only Jesus but many of his colleagues and his posthumous followers for over a century is simply shameful. And it's creepy to me the way people even now are still trying to "forget" the Armenian genocide. While I'm happy that Obama was forthright enough in his latest trip abroad in decrying anyone who denies the Nazi holocaust, his not holding Turkey's feet to the fire on the Armenians is uncomfortably convenient, IMO.
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Old 07-21-2009, 12:42 AM   #18
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Why those 2? I thought about removing them as defamatory.

Chaucer seems to have an agenda, so he assumes that every one else does too.
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Old 07-21-2009, 04:50 AM   #19
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Chaucer, you Sir, are an Heretic!
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Old 07-21-2009, 10:53 AM   #20
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Why those 2? I thought about removing them as defamatory.

Chaucer seems to have an agenda, so he assumes that every one else does too.
Since the second paragraph has now caused offense for more than one contributor, it is evident that it was way over the top. It's time for me to apologize for effectively tarring and feathering every Jesus mythicist in that paragraph, and so I do apologize unreservedly. It's very evident that I did not come off as attacking the methods and the way they could be abused. Animus against individuals instead was the impression. And that was unfortunate, to say the least. Hence my apology.

As for the first paragraph, that is a quote from an atheist, Tim O’Neill. In other words, the statement comes from a third party and is not mine. Coming from a third party, it strongly reflects a point of view that I have encountered frequently, both off-line and on-line, among many long-time atheist friends of my own family. O'Neill is simply expressing what many I know and know well feel. So I will not apologize for excerpting someone else's point of view as an example of a line of thinking that is very much out there. That's like shooting the messenger. I decline to apologize for someone else's words.

Respectfully,

Chaucer
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