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08-11-2006, 11:29 AM | #41 | |
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Well, my point is: if her argument that an hoti is lacking holds, nor does her solution solve all the problems. For the perfect participle elêluthota is accusative, in concordance with iêsoun christon, which is also accusative, so naturally yielding iêsoun christon elêluthota the single object of mê homologei: "not to confess that Jesus Christ came [or is come]..." If iêsoun christon is rendered the sole object of mê homologei to read "not to confess that Jesus is the Christ," then elêluthota becomes a loose word, which cannot but be the subject of en sarki ek theou ouk estin to yield something like "in the flesh from God [that spirit] is not come." The problem is that, in that case, nominative (elêluthas) in substitution for accusative should apply. IMHO. |
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08-12-2006, 03:26 AM | #43 |
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Good link, No Robots. I must now examine the grammatical issue more thouroughly, then eventually read Dr. Lieu's book and send her a message. Thank you very much, in any event.
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08-14-2006, 07:27 AM | #44 | |
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It am going to suggest that historical issues cannot be decided soley on grammatical grounds. Tertullian knew who the antichrists of 1 John were.
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08-14-2006, 08:47 AM | #45 |
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Indeed? Well, according to him, they certainly weren't mythicists. Here is the whole passage from which you quoted (available here):
Our heretic must now cease to borrow poison from the Jew--"the asp," as the adage runs, "from the viper"--and henceforth vomit forth the virulence of his own disposition, as when he alleges Christ to be a phantom. Except, indeed, that this opinion of his will be sure to have others to maintain it in his precocious and somewhat abortive Marcionites, whom the Apostle John designated as antichrists, when they denied that Christ was come in the flesh; not that they did this with the view of establishing the right of the other god (for on this point also they had been branded by the same apostle), but because they had started with assuming the incredibility of an incarnate God. |
08-14-2006, 02:12 PM | #46 | |
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08-15-2006, 08:48 AM | #47 | |
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Was Jesus a phantom or was he flesh and blood? A) He was flesh and blood because suffering of the flesh was required to serve as a true sacrafice B) He was a phantom because flesh is corrupt and not worth of a god. None of this discussion had anything to do with anything that we would call facts or observation. |
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08-15-2006, 09:50 AM | #48 | |
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08-16-2006, 02:55 PM | #49 | ||
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In other words, to dismiss grammar as a means to decide historical issues, being unsupportive of an argument as grammar is, does not make the argument stronger. Quote:
Second-century Christians positively supported the belief of a fleshly Jesus. Therefore, the load of the proof falls with those that imply that first-century Christians believed in a mythical Jesus, which belief a subsequent generation allegedly replaced with that one that is the only one of which we have any empirical evidence. |
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08-16-2006, 03:13 PM | #50 |
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Whether docetic phantom or born person, neither were in the sublunar realm, both were actually on earth, and both were thought of as visible if seen from a disciple's eye.
Neither support the "mythical Jesus" theory. |
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