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Old 12-28-2011, 04:16 PM   #11
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I think the present Dialogue is preserved in a very corrupt form and dates to first half of the second century. I wouldn't be surprised if Trypho were a corruption of Tarphon (=טרפון). I think it is Tarphon who gives us the best description of the dyplastoon Jewish house of worship in Alexandria. This points to him having contact with non-Jews from outside Palestine. I have always been suspicious that Justin might be one and the same with the “Justus” in Alexandria in the list of successors of St Mark. Who knows
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Old 12-28-2011, 05:11 PM   #12
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1) The sacrifice for expiating sins is NOT the lamb of Passover, but the goat of Yom Kippur. At least "Justin" didn't go as far as GJohn with this mistake.

2) Official doctrine is that the FIRST gospel was Matthew.

3) Citations are "incorrect" because many of them do not closely resemble the source.

4) I am not an expert in detecting interpolations and do not know Greek, but I have this suspicion that there are at the very least marginal glosses or interpolations in Justin in the Dialogue.


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I have might doubts as to whether the Dialogue was from the second century as opposed to the third or fourth. It may be true that the style of apologists is always to expect readers to take their word for it. I was just commenting in this case.
It still betrays your rhetorical goal and thus your lack of objectivity, as well as your lack of sensitivity to genre and your general naivety regarding religious historiography.



How is it "incorrect"?



So you are arguing that if they had existed, certainly he wouldn't have so disrespectfully labeled them?



What "official" church doctrine existed at the time of Justin's Dialogue with Trypho?



Martyr also quotes from Revelation, even though that text wouldn't be considered authoritative by the church for quite some time after.



"Incorrect citations"?

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Remember that in his Apology he refers the EMPEROR to check out his own archives for the "Acts of Pilate" describing the crucifixion. Very risky business especially if Justin never saw the archives and if the Acts does not reflect anything that happened historically. Probably a nice later interpolation.........
And if such a text did exist, it's not very risky, is it? Any number of scenarios could underlie Martyr's citations.
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Old 12-28-2011, 05:17 PM   #13
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If Trypho were Rebbe Tarfon something Pharisaic/Rabbinic would come through. Absolutely nothing rabbinic comes through the little bit of the Jewish part of the dialogue. All the writer wanted to do was brag about his own interpretations of the Jewish scriptures without allowing "Trypho" even the slightest opportunity to challenge any of them.

Personally I don't even think the Dialogue is from the 2nd century at all. The small significance of "Christians" available in the 2nd century would mean that the average rabbinical Jew would have had no exposure or interest in this little sect if it existed in the 2nd century.

And I don't think anyone that early would have bothered putting together a whole reinterpretation of Jewish scriptures to show the new religion to be the SUCCESSOR religion of Judaism. It's just way too early.


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I think the present Dialogue is preserved in a very corrupt form and dates to first half of the second century. I wouldn't be surprised if Trypho were a corruption of Tarphon (=טרפון). I think it is Tarphon who gives us the best description of the dyplastoon Jewish house of worship in Alexandria. This points to him having contact with non-Jews from outside Palestine. I have always been suspicious that Justin might be one and the same with the “Justus” in Alexandria in the list of successors of St Mark. Who knows
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Old 12-28-2011, 05:38 PM   #14
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An alleged theological concept referenced by Justin in his Dialogue with Trypho is used by James F. McGrath and Jerry Truex Two Powers’ and Early Jewish and Christian Monotheism" Journal of Biblical Studies 4.1 (2004): 43-71. to provide support for an earlier rather than later dating for Justin’s writings.

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An extremely important witness to early Jewish-Christian dialogue is Justin Martyr. His Dialogue with Trypho the Jew was written around 160 C.E., although it purports to record a dialogue which he had around 135 C.E.34 Whether a fictitious dialogue or not, what is important is that Justin seems to be concerned about interacting with the actual views and positions held by contemporary Jews. It is significant, therefore, that one of Justin's Jewish interlocutors agrees with Justin that there is be a second figure in heaven alongside God, who is also called God and Lord.35 Trypho is portrayed as quite quickly reaching the same conclusion.36 Thus, in this second century work, there is no hint that the belief in a ‘second god,’ a heavenly agent and vice-regent, is heretical or antithetical to Jewish monotheism.
IIRC, the “Two Powers” theological construct was at first tolerated, perhaps even accepted by “orthodox” Judaism beginning in the first to second century but was later determined to be a heretical belief. On the other had it does appear to be an argument from silence that Justin’s stance re the two powers concept supports that Justin wrote in the second century.
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Old 12-28-2011, 05:41 PM   #15
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This would ONLY be valid IF it could be argued that educated Jews had any contact with "Christians" as early as the middle of the 2nd century, as I mentioned before. And if Justin's sect was so small, it is highly unlikely that he would have had the opportunity to interact to such an extent with such Jews, even for the purpose of tooting his own horn.
In the fourth or fifth centuries, yes, but not in the second.

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An alleged theological concept referenced by Justin in his Dialogue with Trypho is used by James F. McGrath and Jerry Truex Two Powers’ and Early Jewish and Christian Monotheism" Journal of Biblical Studies 4.1 (2004): 43-71. to provide support for an earlier rather than later dating for Justin’s writings.

Quote:
An extremely important witness to early Jewish-Christian dialogue is Justin Martyr. His Dialogue with Trypho the Jew was written around 160 C.E., although it purports to record a dialogue which he had around 135 C.E.34 Whether a fictitious dialogue or not, what is important is that Justin seems to be concerned about interacting with the actual views and positions held by contemporary Jews. It is significant, therefore, that one of Justin's Jewish interlocutors agrees with Justin that there is be a second figure in heaven alongside God, who is also called God and Lord.35 Trypho is portrayed as quite quickly reaching the same conclusion.36 Thus, in this second century work, there is no hint that the belief in a ‘second god,’ a heavenly agent and vice-regent, is heretical or antithetical to Jewish monotheism.
IIRC, the “Two Powers” theological construct was at first tolerated, perhaps even accepted by “orthodox” Judaism beginning in the first to second century but was later determined to be a heretical belief. On the other had it does appear to be an argument from silence that Justin’s stance re the two powers concept supports that Justin wrote in the second century.
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Old 12-28-2011, 05:42 PM   #16
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If Trypho were Rebbe Tarfon something Pharisaic/Rabbinic would come through
I thought you just said that Dialogue isn't a dialogue because it is so one sided Trypho can't be heard? Now suddenly we get enough information to know the exact identity of Trypho
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Old 12-28-2011, 05:45 PM   #17
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IF IT WERE Rebbe Tarfon. But even if it isn't, it still isn't a real dialogue with a rabbinic Jew. Does Trypho even once mention anything he ever heard from any of his teachers or traditions? Of course Justin may not give him the opportunity since he won't let him have a word in edgewise.

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If Trypho were Rebbe Tarfon something Pharisaic/Rabbinic would come through
I thought you just said that Dialogue isn't a dialogue because it is so one sided Trypho can't be heard? Now suddenly we get enough information to know the exact identity of Trypho
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Old 12-28-2011, 05:47 PM   #18
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Tarphon would be an Aramaic rendering of the Greek name Τρύφων. I am not sure how certain we can be of Tarphon's religious beliefs. His name was certainly Greek. As I said he seems to have visited Alexandria at least once. This would imply he spoke Greek. The rabbinic tradition of the period after the Jewish temple cannot simply be equated with the tradition of the Pharisees. I don't have a clue what Judaism looked like in the period between the two Jewish revolts. No one does.
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Old 12-28-2011, 05:56 PM   #19
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The Pharisees were not monolithic, going way back. Essentially they followed the oral tradition of the sages, but some did to a greater extent and others to a lesser extent. That is a reason why in the gospels it says that some Pharisees were hypocrites, but that also praises them as in Matthew 5:19 and Matthew 23:2. Although it sounds funny that he says that those who are hypocrites sit in Moses' seat. A little confusion there.
Contemporary Orthodox Judaism sees a constant thread running all the way back of the same system.

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Tarphon would be an Aramaic rendering of the Greek name Τρύφων. I am not sure how certain we can be of Tarphon's religious beliefs. His name was certainly Greek. As I said he seems to have visited Alexandria at least once. This would imply he spoke Greek. The rabbinic tradition of the period after the Jewish temple cannot simply be equated with the tradition of the Pharisees. I don't have a clue what Judaism looked like in the period between the two Jewish revolts. No one does.
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Old 12-28-2011, 06:18 PM   #20
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1) The sacrifice for expiating sins is NOT the lamb of Passover, but the goat of Yom Kippur. At least "Justin" didn't go as far as GJohn with this mistake.
I see. This is what Justin says about Jesus as the lamb (the discussion of the goats is in italics):

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The mystery, then, of the lamb which God enjoined to be sacrificed as the passover, was a type of Christ; with whose blood, in proportion to their faith in Him, they anoint their houses, i.e., themselves, who believe on Him. For that the creation which God created--to wit, Adam--was a house for the spirit which proceeded from God, you all can understand. And that this injunction was temporary, I prove thus. God does not permit the lamb of the passover to be sacrificed in any other place than where His name was named; knowing that the days will come, after the suffering of Christ, when even the place in Jerusalem shall be given over to your enemies, and all the offerings, in short, shall cease; and that lamb which was commanded to be wholly roasted was a symbol of the suffering of the cross which Christ would undergo. For the lamb, which is roasted, is roasted and dressed up in the form of the cross. For one spit is transfixed right through from the lower parts up to the head, and one across the back, to which are attached the legs of the lamb. And the two goats which were ordered to be offered during the fast, of which one was sent away as the scape(goat), and the other sacrificed, were similarly declarative of the two appearances of Christ: the first, in which the elders of your people, and the priests, having laid hands on Him and put Him to death, sent Him away as the scape(goat); and His second appearance, because in the same place in Jerusalem you shall recognise Him whom you have dishonoured, and who was an offering for all sinners willing to repent, and keeping the fast which Isaiah speaks of, loosening the terms of the violent contracts, and keeping the other precepts, likewise enumerated by him, and which I have quoted, which those believing in Jesus do. And further, you are aware that the offering of the two goats, which were enjoined to be sacrificed at the fast, was not permitted to take place similarly anywhere else, but only in Jerusalem.
Now, I see Justin discussing the lamb of the passover representing Christ insofar as its blood is put on the doors of the house, so that the destroying angel passes over it, and as it is roasted in a likeness to Christ's suffering on the cross. I see him then discuss Christ as prefigured in the two goats of "the fast," which refers not to Pesach, but to the Day of Atonement. He refers to the goat sacrificed for sin and the scapegoat, which symbolically took upon it the unintentional sins of Israel. Here is the statement from Leviticus 16 regarding the goats:

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And Aaron shall bring the goat on which the Lord’s lot fell, and offer it as a sin offering. But the goat on which the lot fell to be the scapegoat shall be presented alive before the Lord, to make atonement upon it, and to let it go as the scapegoat into the wilderness.
Martyr later references both the lamb of the Pesach and the goats of the Day of Atonement as actions not able to be carried out in just any place. He also compares Christ to the passover lamb in the following way:

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For the passover was Christ, who was afterwards sacrificed, as also Isaiah said, 'He was led as a sheep to the slaughter.' And it is written, that on the day of the passover you seized Him, and that also during the passover you crucified Him. And as the blood of the passover saved those who were in Egypt, so also the blood of Christ will deliver from death those who have believed. Would God, then, have been deceived if this sign had not been above the doors? I do not say that; but I affirm that He announced beforehand the future salvation for the human race through the blood of Christ. For the sign of the scarlet thread, which the spies, sent to Jericho by Joshua, son of Nave (Nun), gave to Rahab the harlot, telling her to bind it to the window through which she let them down to escape from their enemies, also manifested the symbol of the blood of Christ, by which those who were at one time harlots and unrighteous persons out of all nations are saved, receiving remission of sins, and continuing no longer in sin.
I don't ever see Martyr refer to Christ as a passover lamb whose blood atones for sins. I see him refer to Christ as a passover lamb whose blood diverts God's destruction, which is a perfectly accurate description. I also find Martyr describing Christ in terms of the goats used on the Day of Atonement. Where do you find a reference to Christ as a passover lamb whose blood atones for sins?

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2) Official doctrine is that the FIRST gospel was Matthew.
And where is this established?

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3) Citations are "incorrect" because many of them do not closely resemble the source.
And why do you reject the notion that the he had textually divergent sources in front of him, and that the differences arise from his Vorlagen and not his exegesis? Have you even considered that notion?

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4) I am not an expert in detecting interpolations and do not know Greek, but I have this suspicion that there are at the very least marginal glosses or interpolations in Justin in the Dialogue.
I see. I know a lot of text-critical work has been done with Martyr's text, and there are certainly glosses and interpolations, but many of them are actually subsequent to the original composition of his text. Have you considered that?
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