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Old 05-05-2012, 09:50 PM   #181
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No, Paul is only saying Jesus had a brother. That is literally what he says in that verse, and there is no convincing reason to take it as anything but what the plain Greek says.
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Old 05-05-2012, 09:59 PM   #182
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All you have is a letters written to "brothers" and "sisters". You cannot establish Paul's normal usage from this.
spin cited 1 Cor 9:5. Could you cite the passages you reference above? I only read brothers in that passage.
The Greek word for "sister" is just the feminine form of "brother". The plural of "brothers" can mean both "brothers and sisters", though it would seem likely in the context of 1 Cor 9:5 and politics that it only meant "brothers".
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Old 05-05-2012, 10:14 PM   #183
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spin cited 1 Cor 9:5. Could you cite the passages you reference above? I only read brothers in that passage.
The Greek word for "sister" is just the feminine form of "brother". The plural of "brothers" can mean both "brothers and sisters", though it would seem likely in the context of 1 Cor 9:5 and politics that it only meant "brothers".
This is from conservative Michael Marlowe:

An individual female is never referred to as an adelphos in Greek; she is referred to with the word adelphē "sister," and if a writer wishes to be inclusive he must use a compound expression such as adelphos kai adelphē "bother and sister" (see, for example, the usage of the singular forms in the Greek New Testament at Matthew 12:50, Mark 3:35, 1 Corinthians 7:15, and James 2:15). So the rendering "brother or sister" for adelphos in such places as Matthew 18:15 is contrary to Greek usage, and linguistically unsound. When Bible versions like the TNIV use such gender-inclusive expressions in place of "brother" for the masculine adelphos they are simply covering up the male-oriented usage with a paraphrastic rendering.

It is what I was essentially hinting at in my post.
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Old 05-05-2012, 10:17 PM   #184
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The funny thing about 1 Cor. 5:9 is that, as with 1:19 it excludes the apostles and refers to them as a separate group.
Unless you can show how he had to have said "and/or" (and how he would have said it) this quibble doesn't get off the ground.

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I remembered this verse right after I posted above, and knew I would get called on it, but I still maintain that even this verse makes little sense except as a reference to literal siblings. It's just not credible that we should prefer an assumption that it alluded to some super elite group within the Church that Paul explains nowhere, which lacks any documentary evidence anywhere and which excludes the apostles themselves, and explicitly excludes Cephas.
I already give a number of reasons why the version you want is questionable:
  1. Paul's use of brother (which you haven't seriously dealt with);
  2. the significance of the non-titular κυριος in Paul's diaspora Jewish literary-cultural heritage;
  3. the fact that no new testament text supports the importance of Jesus's brother James, Acts being silent and the gospels leaving us with his rejection; and
  4. in both cases of the phrase we are dealing with person(s) of importance, the plural ranking brothers of the lord with apostles, yet not a single source supports such an idea for brothers of Jesus.

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The assertion that Paul's congregational use of the word adelphos is his "normal" use is specious at best and the assertion that this should be some kind of controlling assumption in 1:19 tips over into sheer sophistry.
Another grab bag of contentless polemic.

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I ask again, what was Paul's "normal" way to say somebody had a male sibling? If he wanted to say the Lord had a literal brother, how should we expect that he would word it?
I have responded to the issue in post #121.
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Old 05-05-2012, 10:18 PM   #185
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No, Paul is only saying Jesus had a brother.
That is eisegesis.

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That is literally what he says in that verse,
And that is simple false.

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and there is no convincing reason to take it as anything but what the plain Greek says.
And that is dogma.
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Old 05-05-2012, 10:28 PM   #186
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Words have meanings and we should respect that. These are not "works" of Paul's but letters.
Don't be silly.
There is nothing silly about it. If we were looking at Paul's "works" as a dcitionary would define it, you might have point

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a. An artistic creation, such as a painting, sculpture, or literary or musical composition; a work of art.
b. works The output of a writer, artist, or musician considered or collected as a whole: the works of Shakespeare
But we aren't looking at the "works" of Paul. We are looking at a handful of surviving letters written to "brothers" and "sisters".
Do you really, believe you have established Paul's usage or just that you can make an argument that might persuade the weak minded?

And somehow freethought and rationalism is advanced when they do?
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Old 05-05-2012, 10:34 PM   #187
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If the church writer wanted 'Paul' to say that Jebus had a brother named 'James', then 'Paul' damn well would say that Jebus had a brother named James.
It has nothing to do with Paul.
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Old 05-05-2012, 10:39 PM   #188
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No, Paul is only saying Jesus had a brother.
That is eisegesis.


And that is simple false.

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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic View Post
and there is no convincing reason to take it as anything but what the plain Greek says.
And that is dogma.
No "dogma" about it. You had it explained to you here why it was not and it's willfulness on your part to persist. Are you trying to advance freethought and reason or just promote your theory no matter what the cost?

Eleanor Dickey's paper on kinship terms, Literal and Extended Use of Kinship Terms in Documentary Papyri


When a kinship term is used to connect someone to a person
other than the writer or addressee of the letter, it may very safely
be taken literally; even in other situations extended usage occurs
only in certain types of context, so there are many cases in which
one can be fairly confident that a term is literal,


As you have nothing to support your view it's mischievous to continue continually cry "dogma"
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Old 05-05-2012, 10:49 PM   #189
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The Greek word for "sister" is just the feminine form of "brother". The plural of "brothers" can mean both "brothers and sisters", though it would seem likely in the context of 1 Cor 9:5 and politics that it only meant "brothers".
This is from conservative Michael Marlowe:

An individual female is never referred to as an adelphos in Greek; she is referred to with the word adelphē "sister," and if a writer wishes to be inclusive he must use a compound expression such as adelphos kai adelphē "bother and sister" (see, for example, the usage of the singular forms in the Greek New Testament at Matthew 12:50, Mark 3:35, 1 Corinthians 7:15, and James 2:15). So the rendering "brother or sister" for adelphos in such places as Matthew 18:15 is contrary to Greek usage, and linguistically unsound. When Bible versions like the TNIV use such gender-inclusive expressions in place of "brother" for the masculine adelphos they are simply covering up the male-oriented usage with a paraphrastic rendering.

It is what I was essentially hinting at in my post.
Michael Marlowe has chosen verses that aren't relevant, ie ones that don't deal with plural forms. They are related by "or", so we expect gender differentiation. The writer in each case is making a list.

The plural form indicating both male and female is not in any sense controversial.

Here's some of the Liddell and Scott entry:
I. as Subst., αδελφος, ο, voc. αδελφε; Ep., Ion., and Lyr. αδελφεός (gen. -ειου in Hom. is for -εοο), Cret. αδελφιος, αδευφιος, Leg.Gort.2.21, Mon.Ant.18.319:—brother, Hom., etc.; αδελφοι brother and sister, E.El.536;
This is strictly analogous to the Latin:
B. Fratres for brother and sister (as also the Gr. ἀδελφοί): “Lucius et Titia fratres emancipati a patre,” Dig. 10, 2, 38: “tres fratres, Titius, Naevius et Seia,” ib. 2, 14, 35: “fratrum incestus, amor,” Tac. A.
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Old 05-05-2012, 10:50 PM   #190
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No, Paul is only saying Jesus had a brother.
That is eisegesis.


And that is simple false.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic View Post
and there is no convincing reason to take it as anything but what the plain Greek says.
And that is dogma.
No "dogma" about it. You had it explained to you here why it was not and it's willfulness on your part to persist. Are you trying to advance freethought and reason or just promote your theory no matter what the cost?
All that shows is that you couldn't be bothered to read the rest of the thread. Typical.

And don't be hypocritical in your attempts to impute other people's rationale when you don't know them.
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