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05-05-2012, 09:50 PM | #181 |
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No, Paul is only saying Jesus had a brother. That is literally what he says in that verse, and there is no convincing reason to take it as anything but what the plain Greek says.
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05-05-2012, 09:59 PM | #182 |
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The Greek word for "sister" is just the feminine form of "brother". The plural of "brothers" can mean both "brothers and sisters", though it would seem likely in the context of 1 Cor 9:5 and politics that it only meant "brothers".
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05-05-2012, 10:14 PM | #183 | |
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An individual female is never referred to as an adelphos in Greek; she is referred to with the word adelphē "sister," and if a writer wishes to be inclusive he must use a compound expression such as adelphos kai adelphē "bother and sister" (see, for example, the usage of the singular forms in the Greek New Testament at Matthew 12:50, Mark 3:35, 1 Corinthians 7:15, and James 2:15). So the rendering "brother or sister" for adelphos in such places as Matthew 18:15 is contrary to Greek usage, and linguistically unsound. When Bible versions like the TNIV use such gender-inclusive expressions in place of "brother" for the masculine adelphos they are simply covering up the male-oriented usage with a paraphrastic rendering. It is what I was essentially hinting at in my post. |
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05-05-2012, 10:17 PM | #184 | ||||
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05-05-2012, 10:18 PM | #185 |
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That is eisegesis.
And that is simple false. And that is dogma. |
05-05-2012, 10:28 PM | #186 | ||
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Do you really, believe you have established Paul's usage or just that you can make an argument that might persuade the weak minded? And somehow freethought and rationalism is advanced when they do? |
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05-05-2012, 10:34 PM | #187 |
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If the church writer wanted 'Paul' to say that Jebus had a brother named 'James', then 'Paul' damn well would say that Jebus had a brother named James.
It has nothing to do with Paul. |
05-05-2012, 10:39 PM | #188 | |
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Eleanor Dickey's paper on kinship terms, Literal and Extended Use of Kinship Terms in Documentary Papyri When a kinship term is used to connect someone to a person other than the writer or addressee of the letter, it may very safely be taken literally; even in other situations extended usage occurs only in certain types of context, so there are many cases in which one can be fairly confident that a term is literal, As you have nothing to support your view it's mischievous to continue continually cry "dogma" |
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05-05-2012, 10:49 PM | #189 | ||
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The plural form indicating both male and female is not in any sense controversial. Here's some of the Liddell and Scott entry: I. as Subst., αδελφος, ο, voc. αδελφε; Ep., Ion., and Lyr. αδελφεός (gen. -ειου in Hom. is for -εοο), Cret. αδελφιος, αδευφιος, Leg.Gort.2.21, Mon.Ant.18.319:—brother, Hom., etc.; αδελφοι brother and sister, E.El.536;This is strictly analogous to the Latin: B. Fratres for brother and sister (as also the Gr. ἀδελφοί): “Lucius et Titia fratres emancipati a patre,” Dig. 10, 2, 38: “tres fratres, Titius, Naevius et Seia,” ib. 2, 14, 35: “fratrum incestus, amor,” Tac. A. |
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05-05-2012, 10:50 PM | #190 | ||
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And don't be hypocritical in your attempts to impute other people's rationale when you don't know them. |
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