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03-08-2013, 08:58 AM | #11 |
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The OP asked about a consensus of non-seminary scholars.
Please note that aa5874's ideas are not part of any consensus. |
03-08-2013, 09:09 AM | #12 | ||
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Church writings do presently state Paul knew gLuke. See Origen's Commentary on Matthew and Eusebius' Church History 6.25. That is a physical fact. It is also a physical fact that ONLY Canonised gLuke contains the phrase this do in remembrance of me and there is evidence that an apologetic writer used the a similar phrase without ever mentioning Paul. Justin Martyr's Dialogue with Trypho Quote:
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03-08-2013, 06:34 PM | #13 | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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03-08-2013, 07:49 PM | #14 | ||
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Please see this link: http://www.freeratio.org/showpost.ph...&postcount=441 Here is the Marcioite version of 1 Corinthians 15:1-11. Quote:
Marcionite 1 Corinthians Interliner by Stuart G. Waugh 18 February, 2013 Jake Jones IV |
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03-08-2013, 08:22 PM | #15 |
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Here's a link to that whole thread:
The case for interpolation in 1 Cor 15 - I think there are more. |
03-08-2013, 09:37 PM | #16 | ||
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03-08-2013, 09:51 PM | #17 | |||
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I have begun to seriously wonder whether the Marcionite gospel would have looked 'centonized' because the Catholics severed and mixed up the original order of the letters and spread them around to newly invented texts (like the gospel). Look at Clement's citation of what we would call "1 Corinthians 15:50":
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The other reference to 1 Corinthians 15, 50 in the Stromata: Quote:
The linking of 1 Corinthians 15, 50 and 2 Corinthians chapter 10 is also found in Methodius: Quote:
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03-08-2013, 10:44 PM | #18 | |
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1 Cor 11:20-34
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1. 'With the insertion of vv.23-27 a later scribe, apparently also confused (by the text after the insertion), felt the necessity to qualify "body" in v.29, ie "the body of the lord".' (Parenthesis added for clarity.) The insertion was already there when a later scribe felt it necessary to add the qualification "of the lord" into v.29. See Aland, NTG, p.460, for the addition. This qualification is used by many modern translations, despite its secondary nature. They also seem to be confused about what Paul was actually saying. It was a two step process: one scribe inserted vv.23-27 and a later scribe felt it necessary to qualify "body" erroneously to point to the body of the lord, insuring a misunderstanding of the text. 2. 30 That is why many of you are weak and ill, and some have died. 31 But if we judged ourselves truly, we should not be judged." This judging ourselves in v.31 refers back to the examining (from δοκιμαζω which implies judgment) of oneself (28), and the discerning (from διακρινω which also implies judgment) of the body (29). These two verses are Paul's instructions, what the Corinthians should be doing. "These two verses" were referring to v.28 and v.29. My comment though was slightly inaccurate as it was only v.28 which contains the instruction, ". Verses 29-32 elaborate the implications of the notion in v.28. I should stress that the RSV should make v.28 clearer: [T2]28 Examine yourselves, and only then eat of the bread and drink of the cup.[/T2] The eating is consequent on the examining (ουτως gives the "consequent" idea). He spells it out in v.34: "If you are hungry, eat at home". The meal is not about bodily needs. If you find upon examination that you are hungry, you aren't partaking of the lordly meal in the spirit. Verse 28 is the crux of Paul's discourse in vv.20-34a. When the Corinthians come together it is not really to eat the lordly meal. But if they examine themselves, they can come together in fellowship and eat. I hope this makes my understanding clearer. |
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03-08-2013, 11:10 PM | #19 | |
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Compare earlier in Stromata 2:
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03-08-2013, 11:54 PM | #20 |
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