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11-18-2004, 01:16 AM | #51 |
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An extended discussion of the existence of a historical Jesus is off topic in this thread. The topic has been discussed at length in previous threads; you may start a new one if you think there is any aspect that needs more discussion. |
11-18-2004, 04:18 AM | #52 |
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Carlson's Blog, a fascinating source, also presents an argument for A Pre-Eusebian Witness to the Testimonium. Scroll down the archives until you hit the last two, both are about the TF and Olsen and are very interesting. Carlson apparently stakes out a middle ground, accepting a Josephus original that Eusebius worked over. Links to Olsen's exchange with Carlson are also given.
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11-18-2004, 09:48 AM | #53 | |||
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Comparison of Pseudo-Hegessipus and Eusebius's Theophania
Hi Andrew,
Thank you for this. It is very helpful. I note that there is a coincidence in similarity of thought in a passage just preceding Pseudo-Hegesippus's quote of the TF and Eusebius's passage just following the TF in his "Theophania." Would this not be a fantastic coincidence if the author of Pseudo-Hegesippus had not read Eusebius's Theophania? Quote:
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Jay Raskin Quote:
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11-18-2004, 04:14 PM | #54 | ||||
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Quote:
I think it is probably unlikely that Pseudo-Hegesippus had read the Theophania which seems not to have been a particularly well-known work. However this doesn't affect your main point because there is a similar passage in the better known Demonstratio Evangelica book 3 Quote:
What I think is clear is that both the passages in Eusebius and the passage in Pseudo-Hegesippus are paraphrasing the TF. (Jews and Gentiles believing, wise teaching, superhuman miracles) The question is whether they are independently paraphrasing the TF or whether Pseudo-Hegesippus is dependent on Eusebius. (Just to clarify one point the translation of the relevant bit of Pseudo-Hegesippus is from a book by Whealey so issues of my dodgy Latin thankfully don't arise.) It's unfortunately difficult to decide one way or the other. One possible indication that they are independent is that Eusebius (DE but similar in Theophania) Quote:
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(the Latin is plerique tamen Iudaeorum gentilium plurimi crediderunt in eum) On the whole the way Eusebius quotes the TF then paraphrases it is rather different from the way Pseudo-Hegesippus paraphrases the TF then announces a direct quote from Josephus which ends up leaving out most of the already paraphrased material. Basically Pseudo-Hegesippus is rewriting the TF while Eusebius is quoting it and then paraphrasing the quote in his subsequent argument. So I think that although there is obviously a connection between Eusebius and Pseudo-Hegesippus here, the connection is pretty much accounted for by the underlying TF which they are paraphrasing. Andrew Criddle |
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11-18-2004, 09:18 PM | #55 | ||||
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Hi Andrew,
There is also more than a passing similarity between what PH says in his text and what Eusebius says in the History after quoting the TF. Here is Pseudo-Hegesippus: Quote:
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One may consider some of the thousands of other ways PH may have used the TF. He may have used it to wonder how Josephus knew about Jesus and why he did not convert to Judaism. He could have used it to point out how absurd it was that Josephus only devoted this short summary to Jesus, when he immediately gives three four times the space to a robber of no-account in the next paragraph. He could have used it to praise the writing style of Josephus, able to summarize the salient features of Jesus's life in such short dramatic paragraphs. Instead he uses it as a polemical point of attack against his enemies, just as Eusebius used it. Compare this use to how Jerome uses the TF in Illustrious Men: Quote:
Unlike PH and Eusebius, Jerome does not repeat the sentence about Jews and Gentiles flocking to Jesus, nor does he use the fact of Josephus's Jewishness to claim authencity for the work and to attack an opponent. It seems to me that the case for Jerome's work being independent from Eusebius is far greater than the case for PH's independence from Eusebius. It seems to me that PH has been directly influenced by both H.E. and either demonstratio or Theophania. Jerome's writing has not been influenced by either. Warmly, Jay Raskin Quote:
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11-19-2004, 10:19 AM | #56 | |||
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Hi Jay Josephus is clearly dependent on Eusebius here see Ecclesiastical History book 3 Quote:
IMO we don't have anything as clear cut as this for Pseudo-Hegesippus. Andrew Criddle |
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11-19-2004, 08:59 PM | #57 | |
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Being Clear
Hi Andrew,
I am not being clear about the parallelism that I believe establishes PH's dependence on Eusebius. We cannot restrict ourselves to the simple criteria of "does X repeat Y" in order to establish dependency. If we do we shall find depedency in only 1 in 100 cases where there is true dependency. Exact copying is only one form of dependency and a rare one at that. We have to look at a variety of ways in which two texts may be interacting. For example, if I write, "zebras are pack animals and like to eat fish" and you respond with a text saying, "Despite what some people say, Zebras are solitary creatures and vegetarians," you have not copied my saying, but it is quite obvious that your text depends on my text. In this case we find Eusebius quoting the TF and immediately saying that the fact that Josephus is a Jewish Historian discredits a group. In the case of PH, we find him saying Josephus is a Jewish Historian which descredits a group and then quoting the TF. In other words, they both use the TF in the same way. as the final sword thrust in a verbal assault on a hated enemy. Now if one is reading Josephus, there is nothing in Josephus that would make you exerpt this passage specifically and use it to attack a group.in this way. In fact, it is quite illogical to use it this way to attack Jews. The passage would indicate the honesty and integrity of a Jewish writer and thus show that there were honest Jews in the first century, something the authorof PH, probably Ambrose, is loathe to admit. It is only because Eusebius has used the passage to attack a pagan group who created a forged work, that PH uses it in a siimilar fashion. In fact, PH should be praising the Jews for producing the TF instead of using the TF to attack Jews. His blind hated also explains why he copies the sentence in Eusebius about the Jewish and Gentile followers of Jesus and changes it to say that there were more Gentile followers. To disprove my hypothesis, I would bring forward other writers who used the TF to attack groups. This would show that such a use of the TF was common or natural and therefore PH's later use of it in this fasion does not show a depency relationship on Eusebius. Showing similarities between passages of Josephus and Eusebius does not affect the argument I am trying to make. Warmly, Jay Raskin Quote:
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11-20-2004, 01:59 AM | #58 | |
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Quote:
I meant 'JEROME is clearly dependent on Eusebius here' not 'JOSEPHUS is clearly dependent on Eusebius here' Sorry Again Andrew Criddle |
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11-20-2004, 02:48 AM | #59 | |
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I didn't mean to say there were similarities between JOSEPHUS and Eusebius (see apology in other post) I meant to say there were similarities between JEROME and Eusebius making direct dependence of Jerome on Eusebius almost certain here in a way that is not paralled by Pseudo-Hegesippus. Using quotations polemically is (regrettably) common in Christian works of this period I'm not sure how much weight can be placed on it as evidence of dependence. One problem with direct dependence on Eusebius here is that Pseudo-Hegesippus seems to be dependent on a version of the TF without 'he was the Christ' compared to the form of the TF in our texts of Eusebius. (Maybe the underlying form lacked the clause altogether maybe it had 'he was the so-called Christ' or something similar). It is possible that Pseudo-Hegesippus is deliberately distorting the TF here as part of his anti-Jewish agenda but variation in this clause is widespread (Jerome and whatever Syriac tradition underlies Michael the Syrian and Agapius, not sources likely to have been influenced by Pseudo-Hegesippus Jerome because the timescale is too tight and the Syriac source for Michael and Agapius because of the language difference.) Another possibility is that the original text of Eusebius in all three texts had something like 'he was called Christ' and later copyists 'corrected' it. Whealey has seriously suggested this but IMHO it is unlikely. If the original text of Eusebius did read 'he was the Christ' without qualification then this causes problems for the direct usage of Eusebius by Pseudo-Hegesippus here. Andrew Criddle (I will be away from my computer till late Monday so won't be posting again till then.) |
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11-20-2004, 08:49 AM | #60 | |
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Yo, Arians
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JW: "one witness clearly referring to the TF and unlikely to have been influenced by Eusebius". "Clearly" and "unlikely" is going to be difficult here without a discussion of the extant manuscripts. Obviously an original manuscript is much better evidence than a 16th century Armenian copy found in Luther's outhouse. Other posters here have implied that this is an issue but I don't see anyone stating it explicitly. Ignoring/inadequate consideration of extant manuscript evidence is a common Assumption of Christianity since it creates Doubt and Skeptics should always try to avoid picking up Christian assumptions. For instance, on Bede's site there is a simliar discussion: http://www.bede.org.uk/Josephus.htm Which has no mention of extant manuscript evidence. Such an article would be rejected out of hand of God by any serious journal. Predictably this author also overstates evidence and makes conclusions not supported by the evidence. He also did not know that Omar was a stoolie so I say his judgment stinks and I wonder what other mistakes he made. Anyway, this site: http://www.bookreviews.org/pdf/3094_3379.pdf claims that the earliest extant manuscript is from the sixth century while the original is commonly dated 430. We still need an analysis of how this manuscript compares to later ones regarding TF. We have the following good reasons to doubt that HP clearly referred to TF independent of E: 1) HP writes well after E (which has been the main objection here). 2) Time. Time creates uncertainty as to dating (HP original, earliest extant HP and lost/destroyed manuscript bridges). 3) Motive and Opportunity of Christianity to support Christian assertions and hide/destroy the evidence. Specifically, edit HP to make it conform to E. Biased evidence always needs to be discounted. For a religion such as Christianity where Winning (converts) is not just everything, it's the Only thing, we need a BaalMart typology discount. 4) Extant manuscript History. With a sixth century extant and 5th century original we have doubt as to what was original. We have added doubt as this was when Christianity was gaining control (probably not a coincidence) and it's suspicious that the original could not be preserved but a copy a century later could be for 1,500 years. Joseph OPPORTUNITY, n. A favorable occasion for grasping a disappointment. http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Errors...yguid=68161660 http://hometown.aol.com/abdulreis/myhomepage/index.html |
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