Amos

In case you missed it.

Jesus was forsaken to die and was re-united when all faith and doubt were removed and that is why Thomas made the exclamation.

Godless Wonder

How about this (from KJV):

Matthew 1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.

Which is quoting Isaiah 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

Compare this with the 2 verses following:

Matthew 1:24 Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:

Matthew 1:25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS

Yet this Matthew 1:23 verse, supposedly applying to JESUS, contains the only, single occurrence of the word "Emmanuel" in the entire KJV. (though "Immanuel" does appear twice, both in Isaiah. Jesus was never called "Emmanuel" and the word is never mentioned even once again in the entirety of the KJV. (not to mention the mistranslation to "virgin")

How is "Jesus" supposed to be this "Emmanuel?" The Messiah has been given the wrong name by his parents, or else he's not the Messiah.

The Infallible Word of God indeed. So what is the no doubt standard apologist squirmy explanation for this one?

Magus55

http://www.carm.org/doctrine/Jesusisgod.htm

http://www.carm.org/doctrine/isJesusGod.htm

http://www.carm.org/doctrine/Jehovah_is_Jesus.htm

http://www.carm.org/doctrine/Jesusquestions.htm

http://www.carm.org/doctrine/100truths.htm

Is that enough? I'm quite confident you'll reject everyone, and claim they mean nothing but can't say I didn't try.

Magus55

http://www.carm.org/questions/Jesus_name.htm

Godless Wonder

Keep telling yourself that, Magus, meanwhile the rest of us worship the real savior.
(Just kidding.)

judge

HI Gregor,
here is another english "translation" of Jerome



Matthew -- who was also (called) Levi -- was an apostle and former tax-collector. He first composed the gospel of Christ in Hebrew letters and words in Judea for those from the circumcision who had believed. Who later translated (his gospel) into Greek, is not quite certain. Moreover, the Hebrew itself is still held today in the library at Caesarea (Maritima), which the martyr Pamphilus carefully put together. I also was able to make a copy from the Nazarenes, who use this volume in Beroea, a city in Syria. In it, it is to be noted that whenever the evangelist made full use of testimonies from the ancient scriptures -- either on his own or from the Lord Savior -- he did not follow the authority of Seventy translators [i.e., the Greek Septuagint], but of the Hebrew. These are two (examples) of this: "Out of Egypt I have called my Son" (Matt 2:15) and_ "For he shall be called a Nazarene" (Matt 2:23).

from here

http://religion.rutgers.edu/nt/primer/jerome.html

If Jerome is being truthful and not just pushing his own agenda to use the Hebrew rather than the greek the question remains , just what Hebrew text was Jerome using. We know that there were variations even at the time of Christ amongst words here and there in hebrew version.....so....was it the standardised version western protetsants received from massoretic jews in the middle ages?

Doctor X

Well . . . if we get to crucify him. . . .

As always, Magus returns with ipse dixit and "it is not SO!!!"

None atheist scholars understood the contradiction for a rather long time. The "trinity" is an artificial construct foreign to Mk. Not that the text actually matters to the apologist.

--J.D.

Baidarka

Magus55 “Sorry, not a contradiction and probably the first time i've ever actually seen an atheist use this argument. Its called the Trinity. Jesus is both God and man ( known as the hypostatic union). Jesus' human side cried out to God the Father ( i.e the first part of the Trinity). That doesn't mean Jesus isn't God.

Based on your claim that this was a "slip", and proof of Jesus not being God, I really get the sense you don't understand the Trinity at all.”

Although I think that it is undeserved, thank you for your crediting me with originality.
I am quite aware of the doctrine of the Trinity but it doesn’t stop this from being a contradiction. If Jesus is God and man then Jesus the man would not complain to God about his fate. Your multiple personality theory doesn’t explain this situation unless you are suggesting that Jesus/God/Holy Ghost had a mental illness that only allowed him access to one personality at a time.

Please find the word Trinity anywhere in the NT. Please show us anything suggesting Trinity any where in the NT. Trinity is a later Christian doctrine that has nothing to do with the Gospels.

scaramallion

It's rather small, but I like the promise of God to "utterly blot out the rememberance of Amalek from under heaven" in Ex 17:14.

It's rather amateurish of him to then 'inspire' his writers to include references to the tribe in his own holy book.

Amaleq13

One of the reasons I chose my forum name was specifically to deny this prophecy.

The other was that I read somewhere that the name "Amalek/Amaleq" eventually became literally demonized in Jewish mysticism to represent the source of atheism. It seemed too appropriate to pass up.