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09-28-2008, 07:21 AM | #21 | |
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09-28-2008, 07:44 AM | #22 | |
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This thread IIUC is about whether this fully authoritative status was intended to apply to everything in Paul's letters. Andrew Criddle |
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09-28-2008, 08:16 AM | #23 |
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On 1 Galatians, isn't it funny how Paul, who spent years roaming around with Church leadership and direct witnesses of Christ (including Peter, the rock of the church), reveals here that he's rejected every last bit of what he's heard for an entirely knew routine that Christ Himself supposedly dictated to him?
In the whole of Paul's writing, he never once uses Christ's authority on anything. Not a quote, not an indirect quote, not a reference at all to what Christ did in his life, even when it should have been of crucial benefit to do so. Why? |
09-28-2008, 03:13 PM | #24 |
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Andrew,
The OP asks a two part question: "[1] Did Paul ever indicate that he was only giving his personal opinions on proper Christian practice and were his letters intended for specific churches at specific times? [2] If so, what is the justification of the various churches in treating his opinions as theology?" The citation I gave was to show how how his "opinions" became theology (#2 above). "If God said it [through Paul] then I believe it!" It is a bit simplistic, but that is how most US "evangelical" denominations (most Baptist, most Pentecostal churches, most "Independent" churches, most conservative "mainstream" Lutheran and Presbyterian churches, and any church that identifies with Christian fundamentalism or considers itself "Bible based." Regarding question #1, you had already correctly cited 1 Corinthians Chapter 7, which is all about sexual relations and marriage, where Paul gives several statements, some of which he gives the authority of "the Lord" and some which he expresses as opinions, although he believes he has "the spirit of God" backing him there. 1 Corinthians 7:6 6 But I speak this by permission [SUGGNWMHN, a concession or accommodation with someone else's position], and not of commandment [EPITAGHN]. 1 Corinthians 7:10 10 And unto the married I command [PARAGGELLW, a command or charge], yet not I, but the Lord 1 Corinthians 7:12 12 But to the rest speak I, not the Lord 1 Corinthians 7:25 25 Now concerning the unmarried, I have no command [EPITAGHN] of (the) Lord, but I give my opinion [GNWMHN] as one who by (the) Lord's mercy is trustworthy. 1 Corinthians 7:40 40 But she is happier if she so abide, after my judgment [GNWMHN]: and I think also that I have the Spirit of God. Assuming this is from his pen Paul seems here to offer authoritative commandments (expressed by the noun EPITAGH or verb PARAGGELLW) grounded in the authority of either "the Lord" or God himself, and also his own opinions (expressed by some variation of the noun GNWMH). DCH PS: Of these, excepting 7:40, I think only possibly 7:25 is authentic, as the rest of them utilize KURIOS with the definite article (the Lord [Jesus/Christ]) , which I believe is one of the two primary characteristics of my hypothetical editor/redactor. Vs 7:40, while it agrees to an extent with the opinions of my hypothetical editor/redactor (this editor/redactor frequently disagreed with Paul on issues regarding the relation between the sexes, so much so that it is the redactor, comes across as a misogynistic son of a gun in comparison), could be authentic although it uses an anarthrous QEOS (which is usually a characteristic of my hypothetical editor/redactor), but giving the sense "divine spirit". Vs 40 is coupled with 7:39 where EV KURIWi (an anarthrous KURIOS, which I elsewhere identify as a characteristic of the original author "Paul" where it serves as a circumlocution for "Yahweh") is found. |
09-28-2008, 08:46 PM | #25 | ||
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Galations 1.8 Quote:
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09-29-2008, 06:59 AM | #26 | |
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You are right that the "Yet woman will be saved ..." bit seems rather off. If Christ was returning any day, what of the women who were not yet mothers? Still, without the "personal relationship with Jesus" being extended to women in the various congregations how would most of the work of the church get done? Despite the male leadership women are the driving force in the churches, wouldn't you agree? |
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09-29-2008, 07:02 AM | #27 | ||
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The other point is that the women Paul mentions may have been financial patrons; he reminds his readers often about his own poverty. He may have been "inferior" to these women by economic standards. |
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09-29-2008, 08:21 AM | #28 | |
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I'm not sure about IIDB debate threads being canonized, but I wouldn't bet against the works of many modern-day Christian writers like Billy Graham, Rick Warren, and T. D. Jakes being made more officially recognized as "God's Word" sometime in the future. Who knows? I mean, if the creations of L. Ron can be recognized as one group's canon who is to say where the works of other Sci-Fi writers will be in a hundred years. I understand that there are already "churches" dedicated to Klingon and Jedi-based faiths. Perhaps our great-grandchildren will refigure Jesus with a lightsabre. All things are possible ... with religion. |
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09-29-2008, 10:51 AM | #29 | |
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Paul was establishing Christian communities or encouraging existing ones, but I'm guessing the word "church" before 70 was more likely to mean an informal gathering in a private home. You seem fixed on the "oppressive" nature of social organization in these early Christian groups. Men had been controlling public institutions since the beginning of urban life three thousand years before. Why should these 1st C people have considered any other approach? How would ordinary women have had the time to be involved in leadership? How many 1st C women were even literate? |
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09-29-2008, 11:24 AM | #30 | |
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Ben. |
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