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Old 11-25-2008, 05:24 PM   #481
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Why don't you go through the list and show why the silences are not unexpected?

Why did Josephus describe a nobody like Jesus son of Ananais but not Jesus of Nazareth?

So what is your take on why Josephus and Philo don't mention Hillel?


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Philo wrote about a neoplatonist version of Hellenistic Judaism while Paul was allegedly traipsing around the Roman Empire preaching something very similar. Philo never mentions Paul or points out why he is right or wrong.
Paul isn't a platonist or a neoplatonist. Paul is proclaiming the Gospel:
- that you can become a child of God and an inheritor of the Kingdom together with Jesus Christ
- that this was made possible by Christ's faith and obedience which led to the cross
- that this was shown to be true by God raising Jesus from the dead
- that the general resurrection and judgment is coming soon

How is this really similar to Philo?

Peter.
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Old 11-25-2008, 05:33 PM   #482
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Why did Josephus describe a nobody like Jesus son of Ananais but not Jesus of Nazareth?
I know I do not have to rehearse this issue on this board. The short answer here is that Josephus belongs to a list of unexpected silences only if he is actually silent, and that point must be argued. But hopefully not on this thread.

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Why do the writings about Apollonius of Tyana not mention Jesus?
Some authors writing about Apollonius do mention Jesus: Porphyry and Hierocles (the proconsul), for example.

Furthermore, while Alexander the False Prophet is about Alexander (of course), Lucian asserts therein that Alexander was a follower of Apollonius; and Lucian mentions Christians in this same work (as well as referring to Christ himself in Peregrinus.

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Why was Lucian the first Roman satirist to mock Christians - why did Juvenal and Martial not find some material there?
Juvenal wrote (in Rome) about Greek and Roman philosophers, orators, and statesmen. He wrote about Alexander, Pyrrhus, Domitian, Demosthenes, Cicero, Pompey, Hannibal, Socrates, Croesus, Epicurus, and Diogenes. Which of these should he have replaced with a crucified Galilean peasant?

Martial wrote (in Rome, from Spain) about characters in Roman society.

It would surprise me more if either of these satirists did mention Jesus than that they do not.

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Philo wrote about a neoplatonist version of Hellenistic Judaism while Paul was allegedly traipsing around the Roman Empire preaching something very similar. Philo never mentions Paul or points out why he is right or wrong.
(I am going to confine my comments to the historical Jesus, not the historical Paul.)

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Philo also wrote about a political clash in Alexandria that bears some amazing similarities to the description of Jesus' trial in the gospels, including some similar personnel, a betrayal, and crucifixions. What is the likelihood that he might have mentioned Pilate's treatment of Jesus as an aside, if he knew about it? What is the likelihood that he would have known about it?
Almost nil.

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Iasion has provided his own rating of the signficance of these silences, from insignficant to 4 on a scale of 5. Would you agree with his assessment?
He is far too generous with his points at the upper end of the scale, giving an unfathomable 5 for Philo and a hardly less unreasonable 4 for Plutarch and Seneca compared to a 3 for Justus of Tiberias.

I agree with a 3 for Justus (and in doing so I am merely agreeing with Photius, who also felt he should have mentioned Jesus; but to go any higher I would have to have some context, and his work is not extant). If the references in Josephus are both spurious, I would grant him a 4 or possibly even a 5.

Ben.
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Old 11-25-2008, 06:59 PM   #483
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Which you we have already discussed why they aren't good evidence for the case.

Is that it? Shouldn't the real absence be that there are no historians from the time and area not that the historians of the time and area don't mention Jesus?

You have a good one to.
How does the silence about Jesus enhance the case for historicity? It is simply of no help at all.

The case for Jesus, as I have already pointed out, is based on nothing but imagination.
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Old 11-26-2008, 05:14 AM   #484
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Elijah: You still don't seem to get this exercise. We have a mass of writing from the first century. Many obscure and unimportant people are mentioned. Perhaps we can't pinpoint exactly which of these writers would have mentioned Jesus if he existed, but the fact that none of them did is not proof that Jesus never existed, but at least an indication in that direction. And, while much of the literature of the era had not survived, any that mentioned Jesus did.
I know that this is a summary of the argument from absence, but it seems very sweeping:

"We have a mass of writing from the first century."

Do we? Do we include in this mass those works written before Jesus was born? Or just those written in places that had never heard of him? I do think that people asserting that ancient works 'must' mention him (I never see an argument as to why) need to at least specify which ones.

"Many obscure and unimportant people are mentioned."

Indeed so. But does this indicate that EVERYONE who was obscure and unimportant must turn up in ALL of them? If not, I don't quite see the point of complaining that some obscure people don't turn up in some of them (many such people, of course, in none of them).

I don't think that we know all first century literature that mentioned Jesus has been preserved, incidentally. Luke 1:1 is good evidence to the contrary. 99% of all ancient literature is lost, and we can happily presume the same applies to works that mention Jesus.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
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Old 11-26-2008, 05:16 AM   #485
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Juvenal wrote (in Rome) about Greek and Roman philosophers, orators, and statesmen. He wrote about Alexander, Pyrrhus, Domitian, Demosthenes, Cicero, Pompey, Hannibal, Socrates, Croesus, Epicurus, and Diogenes. Which of these should he have replaced with a crucified Galilean peasant?

Martial wrote (in Rome, from Spain) about characters in Roman society.

It would surprise me more if either of these satirists did mention Jesus than that they do not.
Both only just mention the existence of Jews, even though they were present and conspicuous in Rome itself; never mind legions of people offshore.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
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Old 11-26-2008, 05:26 AM   #486
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There was a thread here not too long ago that listed 200 occasions when ancients should have mentioned Jesus but did not when they were writing about his contemporaries.
Is there truth to this or is this just atheist disinformation?
Atheists don't lie about this - they don't have to.
Are we talking about the Remsburg list here? If so, disinformation seems like a reasonable term for it, you know.

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Read Philo's Contra Flaccus.
Interesting; are you claiming that this work 'must' mention Jesus? Where, do you think, such a mention would be?

I've gone off to look for it. The text I find is this.

The work seems to discuss almost exclusively events from the reign of Caligula, after Jesus was dead; and is a diatribe against this Flaccus, for his actions in Alexandria in that period. I couldn't find the word "Jerusalem" in it, even.

So interested to hear more.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
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Old 11-26-2008, 08:25 AM   #487
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I am about to leave on vacation, and may get back to this.

I don't think that the argument from silence in non-Christian sources is all that strong. I think that the strongest argument from silence is the silence in Paul and early Christians about a concrete historical Jesus.

I don't think Remsburg was writing disinformation. IIRC he would agree with the hypothesis that Jesus might have been an obscure peasant.
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Old 11-26-2008, 11:41 AM   #488
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I am about to leave on vacation
Back to Kansas? Say hi to Dorothy
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Old 11-26-2008, 04:56 PM   #489
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Elijah: You still don't seem to get this exercise. We have a mass of writing from the first century. Many obscure and unimportant people are mentioned. Perhaps we can't pinpoint exactly which of these writers would have mentioned Jesus if he existed, but the fact that none of them did is not proof that Jesus never existed, but at least an indication in that direction. And, while much of the literature of the era had not survived, any that mentioned Jesus did.
I know that this is a summary of the argument from absence, but it seems very sweeping:

"We have a mass of writing from the first century."

Do we? Do we include in this mass those works written before Jesus was born? Or just those written in places that had never heard of him? I do think that people asserting that ancient works 'must' mention him (I never see an argument as to why) need to at least specify which ones.

"Many obscure and unimportant people are mentioned."

Indeed so. But does this indicate that EVERYONE who was obscure and unimportant must turn up in ALL of them? If not, I don't quite see the point of complaining that some obscure people don't turn up in some of them (many such people, of course, in none of them).

I don't think that we know all first century literature that mentioned Jesus has been preserved, incidentally. Luke 1:1 is good evidence to the contrary. 99% of all ancient literature is lost, and we can happily presume the same applies to works that mention Jesus.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
Christians burned the pagan literature of the Roman Empire. Why would they have burned anything that was evidence of Jesus?

Christians were fraudulently manufacturing fake evidence by the cartload. There is no reason to think that the Christians would have lost any evidence that actually existed.

The lack of evidence is consistent with a mythical or fictional Jesus, and is inconsistent with an historical Jesus.

There is no primary source indicating that Jesus existed.
It is not true that Jesus ever existed.
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Old 11-26-2008, 05:34 PM   #490
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Christians burned the pagan literature of the Roman Empire.
I guess that means there's none left.

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Why would they have burned anything that was evidence of Jesus?
They didn't like the quality of the paper?

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Christians were fraudulently manufacturing fake evidence by the cartload.
Did you get a lead from the cart driver or something?

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There is no reason to think that the Christians would have lost any evidence that actually existed.
Why not? They weren't particularly popular before the time of Constantine.

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The lack of evidence is consistent with a mythical or fictional Jesus, and is inconsistent with an historical Jesus.
Lack of evidence is inconsistent with a historical anything. That's reaching tautology level. However, lack of evidence is not inconsistent with a real Jesus. Most people of the past have left no evidence for their existence, but you wouldn't want to claim they weren't real.

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There is no primary source indicating that Jesus existed.
This seems correct to me...

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It is not true that Jesus ever existed.
...But where does this unsupported claim come from?


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