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Old 06-21-2010, 08:11 PM   #31
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What EVIDENCE! You have NO evidence. You are using the very same dazzling forgery as Evidence that Josephus knew the God/man who was RAISED from the dead.
Are you sure that I do not have evidences about the fact that Josephus knew Jesus of Nazareth, also? ...

First time Josephus met Jesus was in Rome, then meet him again in Palestine, on the occasion that I have quoted several times.
What source of antiquity corroborates what you claim or show that Josephus even mentioned that there was Jesus from Nazareth.

The place called the city of Nazareth is NOT found in the writings of Josephus.

It would appear nothing happened in that supposed city to write about.

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Originally Posted by Lttlejohn

I already told you that the 'Testimonium Flavianum' is a resounding FALSE: ergo, Josephus never said that Jesus was a God or rose again from the dead!.... Not only that, but he also stated that don't believe Jesus was the 'Messiah', as Origen has hand down us with his writings. Since un the current versions of the works of Josephus, there is no trace of that statement, so it is a sign even more evident that Origen was referring to the original copies, that had been not yet manipulated, of the work of Josephus!
Well, if there is no trace of Origen's statement then Origen may be a fiction writer. Origen wrote fiction or his writings too were manipulated.

You don't think Origen was manipulated to say Josephus wrote about the Messiah when no such thing ever happened.

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Originally Posted by Littlejohn
Another striking evidence about the many deletions made by forger christians scribes against the works of Josephus, it come us from the church's historic Orosius, the 'factotum' of Augustine.

Into his history, Orosius mentions the event about the expulsion of Jews from Rome, saying that this event occurred in the 9th year of Claudius. He also added, in order to give greater authority to his writings, that even Josephus was in agreement about the date of expulsion, ie in the 9th year of Claudius. However, the scholars know that none of this is found in the works of Jewish historical Josephus of 20 centuries ago about! ..
But, it is odd or an act of stupidity for a forger to REMOVE the evidence from Josephus that ALREADY AGREED with Orosius.

You are putting forward the notion that the forger was an IDIOT.

Please explain why a christian forger would REMOVE the very evidence from Josephus that would BE needed to corroborate OROSIUS?

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Originally Posted by Littlejohn
It 's so obvious that we are witnessing yet another 'holy' deletion from the texts by Josephus! ... Now all that remains to do, it is to understand why the forgers of long time ago found it necessary to remove this passage from the writings of Josephus ... Yet in this case, it is not useful to 'linger' on thesis 'denying' about the historicity of Jesus of Nazareth....
So, did a christian forger remove the word Nazareth from Josephus when that was the evidence that he needed to show Jesus was from Nazareth?

You are not making much sense.


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And, if you linger on the theory that Josephus knew Jesus of Nazareth then you may NEVER realize Jesus was non-historical.
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If your goal, and of those who follow your own guidance, is to prove that God does not exist, then I think you're wrong 'aims'!...
The OP is not about the existence or non-existence of GODS.

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Originally Posted by Littlejohn
To affirm the historicity of Jesus (a thing which is entirely rational, given the objective evidence in various literatures, beginning with the Rabbi one!) does not mean 'sic et simpliciter' to affirm the sure existence of the transcendent, nor even to affirm the alleged 'divinity' of Jesus of Nazareth: a healer 'thaumaturgic' and a 'wizard' that had absolutely nothing different from the current 'magicians' and illusionists of success, if not the fact that the techniques used by Jesus were certainly not 'refined' as those of modern illusionist-magicians..
I am not hear to stop you from believing YOUR Jesus did exist only to show that you have failed to show YOUR Jesus did.

A proposal, belief, or affirmation have NO value as EVIDENCE.
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Old 06-23-2010, 10:01 AM   #32
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I think Iesous was simply a Greek translation of the Hebrew Joshua. I think everyone is over complicating things.
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Old 06-26-2010, 07:38 PM   #33
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I think Iesous was simply a Greek translation of the Hebrew Joshua. I think everyone is over complicating things.
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Iesous is neither a translation nor a transliteration of Hebrew "YEHOSHUAH" (Joshua in English), but the ionic version of the greek-attic word "IASOUS", which meaning, very old, was 'healer' as it confirms Eusebius, Clement of Alexandria and Cyril of Jerusalem. The Hebrew word 'Yehoshuah "(sometimes contract' in Yoshuah) means 'God saves' or even simply 'Savior'. The correct greek translation about the meaning is 'SOTER'

If Iesous was the translation or transliteration of Hebrew Yehoshuah then in the Gospels in English you found not 'Jesus of Nazareth', but 'Joshua of Nazareth'!....

It is highly probable, if not certain, that the real name of the Nazarene was' YESHAY,' Hebrew name which is transliterated into western languages with Jesse. (Jesse in english)

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Old 06-29-2010, 07:42 AM   #34
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I think Iesous was simply a Greek translation of the Hebrew Joshua. I think everyone is over complicating things.
.
Iesous is neither a translation nor a transliteration of Hebrew "YEHOSHUAH" (Joshua in English), but the ionic version of the greek-attic word "IASOUS", which meaning, very old, was 'healer' as it confirms Eusebius, Clement of Alexandria and Cyril of Jerusalem. The Hebrew word 'Yehoshuah "(sometimes contract' in Yoshuah) means 'God saves' or even simply 'Savior'. The correct greek translation about the meaning is 'SOTER'

If Iesous was the translation or transliteration of Hebrew Yehoshuah then in the Gospels in English you found not 'Jesus of Nazareth', but 'Joshua of Nazareth'!....

It is highly probable, if not certain, that the real name of the Nazarene was' YESHAY,' Hebrew name which is transliterated into western languages with Jesse. (Jesse in english)

Greetings


Littlejihn

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You are just repeating the same fallacies without addressing any of the corrections I made to your argument.

Who is the "Jesus" at Ben Sira 46?

Read this post again. The name "Isaiah" also derives from a Hebrew phrase meaning YHWH SAVES.
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Old 06-30-2010, 05:12 AM   #35
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You are just repeating the same fallacies without addressing any of the corrections I made to your argument.

Who is the "Jesus" at Ben Sira 46?

Read this post again. The name "Isaiah" also derives from a Hebrew phrase meaning YHWH SAVES.
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Do you again insist ?... Want you just don't understand me? ...

WE HAVE THE TESTIMONY OF TREE as well ancient church fathers, Eusebius, Clement of Alexandria and Cyril of Jerusalem, which confirm us that 'Iesous' (Iasous/Iasoun/Jason) has nothing to do with Hebrew, because it is a ancient Greek word whose meaning was HEALER!

It is highly probable, if not certain, that such an attribute was applied to Asclepius, the father of IASO, the Greek goddess of healing! There was a close relationship between Jesus and the mythological figure of Asclepius, and this certainly explains why in the Ionian Greece (now western Turkey) was applied to the Nazarene that attribute! (Healer).

The REAL name of Jesus was YESHAY (IESAI), transliterated into greek with IESSAI and in the latin with IESSE! ... It is no a casual coincidence that Epiphanius affirmed that the first 'Christians' (*) was actually called IESSEI !.... From what do you think such an attribute derives, from Iesous ??....

How can not you see that if into handed down texts we find 'Iesous' as a transliteration of Hebrew Yehoshuah Yeshuah this is due to the counterfeiter work of the catholic-christians cribes?...(' Testimonium Flavianum' docet!) .. That there is so testifies usJerome, who transliterated the Hebrew Yehoshuah (Ieosua) with latin IOSUÉ and not with Iesus !!... Clearer than that?!


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Note:

(*) - Obviously they were not 'Christians' to be called so, but the 'gnostic-jesuans', ie belonging to the various Gnostic sects founded by Jesus. Probably the name IESSEI, as Epiphanius informs us, was only applied to Gnostic sect of 'SETHIANS': the only Gnostic sect founded by Jesus in Palestine. (Outside of Palestine Jesus was not known by his real name)



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Old 06-30-2010, 07:49 AM   #36
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The REAL name of Jesus was YESHAY (IESAI), transliterated into greek with IESSAI and in the latin with IESSE!
Where are you getting "YESHAY" from? There's no yod (corresponding to the Latin "y") at the end of the name in Hebrew. The name ends with an ayin.

You continue to demonstrate that you don't know squat about the languages you're dealing with.

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That there is so testifies usJerome, who transliterated the Hebrew Yehoshuah (Ieosua) with latin IOSUÉ and not with Iesus !!... Clearer than that?!
So? Why is Jerome an authority at all? Was he fluent in Hebrew? Did he translate "y'shua" into Greek?

You don't seem to understand that for one - translating one language into another isn't some hard and fast scientific process. A lot of it is simply interpretation. Two, you rely on Jerome as though he is god in the flesh and can't make any mistakes. Basically, you're appealing to false authority on the issue. Three - Jerome didn't even translate y'shua into Greek! That alone completely invalidates the point you're trying to make.

Your problem is that you're appealing to authority because you don't know the languages at all.

Again, who is the "Jesus" at Ben Sirah 46? Why aren't you angry that "Isaiah" - which also means YHWH saves [y'shuayhu] - wasn't translated "literally" into Greek? Instead it was phoneticised as "Isaias".
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Old 06-30-2010, 12:09 PM   #37
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Originally Posted by Littlejohn

The REAL name of Jesus was YESHAY (IESAI), transliterated into greek with IESSAI and in the latin with IESSE!
.
Where are you getting "YESHAY" from? There's no yod (corresponding to the Latin "y") at the end of the name in Hebrew. The name ends with an ayin.

You continue to demonstrate that you don't know squat about the languages you're dealing with.
.
Matthew 1:5 Σαλμων δέ έγέννησεν τόν Βόες έκ της, Pαχάβ Βόες δέ έγέννησεν τόν Iωβηδ έκ της Pούθ Iωβηδ δέ έγέννησεν τόν Iεσσαί,

Matthew 1:6Iεσσαί δέ έγέννησεν τόν Δαυίδ τόν βασιλέα. Δαυίδ δέ έγέννησεν τόν Σολομωνα έκ της του Ουρίου,

Luke 3:32 του Iεσσαί του Iωβηδ του Βόος του Σαλα του Ναασσων

Acts 13:22 καί μεταστήσας αυτόν ήγειρεν τόν Δαυίδ αυτοίς είς βασιλέα ω καί είπεν μαρτυρήσας· ευρον Δαυίδ τόν του Iεσσαί ανδρα κατα τόν καρδίαν μου, ος ποιήσει πάντα τά θελήματά μου.

Romans 15:12 καί πάλιν Hσαΐας λέγει· έσται η ρίζα του Iεσσαί καί ό άνιστάμενος άρχειν έθνων, έπ' αυτω έθνη έλπιουσιν.



Iεσσαί = IESSAI (in my home)


"..You continue to demonstrate that you don't know squat about the languages you're dealing with..

In Italy you says: "The ox that said horned to the donkey!.."



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Old 06-30-2010, 12:43 PM   #38
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Where are you getting "YESHAY" from? There's no yod (corresponding to the Latin "y") at the end of the name in Hebrew. The name ends with an ayin.

You continue to demonstrate that you don't know squat about the languages you're dealing with.
.
Matthew 1:5 Σαλμων δέ έγέννησεν τόν Βόες έκ της, Pαχάβ Βόες δέ έγέννησεν τόν Iωβηδ έκ της Pούθ Iωβηδ δέ έγέννησεν τόν Iεσσαί,

Matthew 1:6Iεσσαί δέ έγέννησεν τόν Δαυίδ τόν βασιλέα. Δαυίδ δέ έγέννησεν τόν Σολομωνα έκ της του Ουρίου,

Luke 3:32 του Iεσσαί του Iωβηδ του Βόος του Σαλα του Ναασσων

Acts 13:22 καί μεταστήσας αυτόν ήγειρεν τόν Δαυίδ αυτοίς είς βασιλέα ω καί είπεν μαρτυρήσας· ευρον Δαυίδ τόν του Iεσσαί ανδρα κατα τόν καρδίαν μου, ος ποιήσει πάντα τά θελήματά μου.

Romans 15:12 καί πάλιν Hσαΐας λέγει· έσται η ρίζα του Iεσσαί καί ό άνιστάμενος άρχειν έθνων, έπ' αυτω έθνη έλπιουσιν.



Iεσσαί = IESSAI (in my home)
You're all over the place. Now you're claiming that Joshua is actually yod-shin-yod (e.g. Y'shy - Jesse)?
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Old 06-30-2010, 12:51 PM   #39
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You don't seem to understand that for one - translating one language into another isn't some hard and fast scientific process. A lot of it is simply interpretation. Two, you rely on Jerome as though he is god in the flesh and can't make any mistakes. Basically, you're appealing to false authority on the issue. Three - Jerome didn't even translate y'shua into Greek! That alone completely invalidates the point you're trying to make.

Your problem is that you're appealing to authority because you don't know the languages at all.

Again, who is the "Jesus" at Ben Sirah 46? Why aren't you angry that "Isaiah" - which also means YHWH saves [y'shuayhu] - wasn't translated "literally" into Greek? Instead it was phoneticised as "Isaias".
.
One of the reasons that lead me to post on the forum my synthesis, built on data collected, is to understand in advance what kind of criticisms can be moved to me and verify also if my synthesis hold to the criticisms: obviously those based on rational criteria and not those based on mere polemics. I doubt that future criticisms that can be moved to my work will look like the ones your also....


Greetings


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