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05-09-2012, 11:29 AM | #31 |
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What is the point of FRDB, then, Jiri? If only published academics are to be taken seriously, but none of them post on FRDB, why do you write here? Why do you read here?
As for publishing, the reaction I got here led me to trim down my eyewitnesses to support my Gospel According to the Atheists (Proto-Luke plus the Passion Narrative), but there is no openness here to even that. (Are there no Jesus Seminar type Cynics here?) My latest idea has been to publish a Jesus Made-to-Order, giving readers the option to select whichever of my eyewitnesses support their proclivities. As I acknowledge, even given seven eyewitnesses, some are less trustworthy than others (though each supports existence, an HJ), and I have already sorted out an (unidentified) eighth who mangled the apocalypticism. |
05-10-2012, 07:42 AM | #32 | |
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As for the other questions, I visit here because I love reading posts by Harvey Dubish and spooking Joe Wallack. Best, Jiri |
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05-10-2012, 07:52 AM | #33 |
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Just a question -
Do we know for sure that Aramaic was the main language of Palestine in the first century CE. It appears that it was, but so far as I understand, its not 100% certain. |
05-10-2012, 12:02 PM | #34 | |
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In Judea Hebrew probably continued to be used in everyday speech as well as Aramaic. Which was the main language of Jews in Judea is not certain, but probably Aramaic. If you accept the Gospel picture of Jesus as a Galilean, he would almost certainly have used Aramaic as his main language. Andrew Criddle |
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05-10-2012, 12:18 PM | #35 | |
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Aramaic words do NOT determine that gMark's story was originated in Aramaic it MAY mean that the writer knew some Aramaic words. After all the use of a few Aramaic words means that people at the time of writing gMark MUST be able to understand them. The use of Aramaic words in gMark is PRIMA FACIE EVIDENCE that people wrote, spoke and understood the Aramaic language at the time of composition. |
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05-10-2012, 12:32 PM | #36 | ||
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The text of Isaiah that He read, would it have been in Aramaic? or would it have been in Greek? or was it in Syriac? or perhaps Latin? English? Swahili? The question being, One who even as a child was already erudite enough to discuss Torah with the Temple Priests and Scribes, and who based all of His claims on the Testimony of 'The Law and The Prophets' of the chosen people, Would He have cited foreign language translations rather than that STANDARD and authoritative text of His people Israel? from which He stated that not even one yod (י) or even the smallest part of any letter would ever fail or pass away? English is my main language, yet I have stood up before The Assembly, and read aloud from the Torah, the Prophets, Psalms and Proverbs in Hebrew. Anyone care to attempt to prove that I, because I live in the midst of an English speaking society, am not able to read aloud the HEBREW text of Isaiah? If I (being only a goy) can do so, He who was by birth and by upbringing a E'biri and Ye'hudi and most certainly could and would have. . |
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05-10-2012, 12:41 PM | #37 | |
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However, if he was a Galilean, Aramaic was almost certainly his first language and the one he would use in ordinary conversation. Andrew Criddle |
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05-10-2012, 01:07 PM | #38 |
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Interesting, yes.
And how much of what He SPOKE would you deem to consist of simply 'ordinary' conversation? |
05-11-2012, 05:20 AM | #39 | |
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Best, Jiri |
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05-12-2012, 12:17 AM | #40 | ||
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Andrew Criddle |
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