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11-08-2006, 12:16 PM | #311 | ||
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The issue is not whether, in claiming or assuming historicity for something he mentions in Galatians, Paul intended the whole of Galatians to be seen as something akin in genre to the Jewish War or the Antiquities, let alone that anyone seeing Paul make a claim about something that happened in history as the basis of an argument as to why the Galatians can be assured that they have been redeemed from the curse of the law, is assuming or arguing or concluding that the whole of Galatians is, or should be seen as, an attempt on Paul's part to write an historical account. It's whether Paul is making historical statements within a writing that he himself knows is not anything like Josephus' Jewish War. More importanly, it's what the Galatians or anyone in the first century would have assumjed was being stated when they heard anyone using the phrase GENOMENON EK GUNAKAI in any genre of writing.. Quote:
The answer is: of no value at all. Jeffrey Gibson |
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11-08-2006, 12:19 PM | #312 | |
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See Bart Ehrman's discussion on pages 238-239 of The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture: The Effect of Early Christological Controversies on the Text of the New Testament (or via: amazon.co.uk). |
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11-08-2006, 12:52 PM | #313 | |
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You are so right. In Job the contrast is between immortal God and mere man. Job 15.14 asks the question, who born of a woman is blameless and just? You are correct, the context there is mortal or man. And in that context, the answer is no one. But when we turn to Gal. 4:4, the context is different. The entity in view here is no mortal, it is the pre-existant Son of God. So when the implied question "who born of a woman is blameless and just?" , the answer is not as in Job no one, but instead Jesus! But the "Son of God" being "born of a woman" is not a historically verifiable statement. There is no history to be found in this context, only theology. The phrase "born of a woman" is taken from Job 15:14, not any eye-witness knowledge of Jesus' mother or birth. Jake Jones IV |
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11-08-2006, 01:26 PM | #314 | |||||
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Rather, the whole point (and Doherty himself agrees with this) is that the savior must become like the saved. Therefore, since those to be saved were under the law, the son of God was made under the law. Likewise, since those to be saved were mortal humans, the son of God became a mortal human. (Here Doherty pulls a switcheroo, as it were, and claims that to become quasi-human in some demonic fleshly realm that is not really earth qualifies as becoming human in this context; it is at this point that the debate takes a sharp left turn, and we are no longer debating the meaning of the phrase born of a woman.) Quote:
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Ben. |
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11-08-2006, 01:35 PM | #315 | |
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And I am not claiming that Paul was writing history, any more than I would claim that Ezra Pound was writing history in the Cantos. Yet plenty of history is to be found in the Cantos, and I think that history can also be found in Paul. Here are two questions for you: 1. Did Paul think that the son of God was born of a woman? 2. Did Paul think that the son of God became a human being? It is my contention that these two questions are synonymous (as indeed they appear to be at first glance). To be born of a woman is to be human; to be human is to be born of a woman. I have reams of examples of the phrase made [or born] from a woman, or tight variations on that phrase, indicating a literal birth (and thus literal humanity). If you think that these questions are dissimilar, then you will have to produce some examples of the phrase made [or born] of a woman meaning something other than a physical birth; that is, you will have to produce evidence for your view. Ben. |
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11-08-2006, 01:46 PM | #316 | ||
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But that is beside the point: what is germane to my query is that - in your own words - Paul's letters prove there was "a Christian movement at the time Paul [wrote]". So his letters are (to the great majority of the scholarly community) a historical witness to Jesus following in his time. So the OBVIOUS next question (not conclusion) here would be, if we know of no-one who wrote about Jesus Christ before Paul, what accounts for the breakout of mass hallucinations of Jesus at that particular point in time ? You may consider this a rhetorical question. Jiri |
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11-08-2006, 02:04 PM | #317 | |
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..." Suspciously useful indeed. |
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11-08-2006, 02:28 PM | #318 | |
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Jiri |
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11-08-2006, 02:33 PM | #319 | |||
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"Middle Platonists" however believed in a supralunar realm that contained incorruptible permanent entities. But the problem here is that there is no evidence that they would have placed suffering and death at the hands of demons in such a realm. You wrote: Given what is known of Hellenistic thinking, Paul's references to the Christ's atoning death and resurrection are consistent with his having believed that they occurred in a Platonic spirit world, not the world inhabited by mortal humans. Can you tell me which pagan writers support such a view, and the passages please? |
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11-08-2006, 02:34 PM | #320 | |
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You despised not, nor rejected: but received me as an angel of God, even as Christ Jesus. |
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