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07-22-2004, 03:30 PM | #111 | |||
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Could you provide the specific basis for this conclusion? Quote:
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Even if the reader understood the phrase to mean something completely different, the author makes it very clear what he means by the phrase. Your argument that his use of the phrase would hurt his attempt to identify Jesus as the Son of God is, therefore, not convincing. Was Paul trying to convince others that Jesus was the Son of God? |
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07-22-2004, 03:51 PM | #112 | ||
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Why question Willow for sources?
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07-22-2004, 06:40 PM | #113 | |
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Isn't it illegal to gamble in Wheaton? |
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07-22-2004, 06:56 PM | #114 | |||||||
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The issue is -- how do you know that this is a fulfilled prophecy, and not a construction, as many exegetes -- including many Christians -- believe? I am not asking you a question about Matthew. I am asking you a question about methodology. For example, suppose you ask me -- "Michael, how do we know that the Battle of Alesia was fought?" I could then answer that we have a book from someone who claims he was the commander on the Roman side at the battle, that we have statements from other Roman historians to that effect, and most importantly, we have outside vectors -- archaeological research that, to a great extent, confirms at least the skeleton of Caesar's story. We get into murkier waters when we start speculating on Caesar's explanation of his and others' behavior, but we know that his basic descriptions are for the most part accurate. So, what I would like to know is: how do you know that this report is history, and not simply fiction made up out of the OT? Quote:
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"In Mark 14:62 one could see a comparable claim in Jesus' announcement that he is sitting at the right hand of God (Catchpole, Trial, 271). However there is much to suggest that this statement pre-supposes the post-Easter confession of Jesus: Jesus was 'divinized' only on the basis of the Easter experience. Such a 'divinization' would especially be blasphemy if it implied the exaltation of a crucified man to God. Moreoever the combination of the three most important christological titles, Messiah, Son of God, and Son of Man, in Mark 14:62f, suggests a post-Easter perspective and can hardly be historical (cf already Lietzmann, 'Prozess', 255f)." To many scholars the "Son of Man" claim looks suspiciously post-Easter. Additionally, your argument relies on a faulty claim about Gentiles. The Jewish scriptures were respected by many in the empire who were not Jews and had not read them, for they were held to be hoary with age and wisdom. Mark's use of Daniel in presenting the story of Jesus might add authenticity to his claims among gentiles by locating them in an earlier and respected document. Quote:
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Vorkosigan |
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07-22-2004, 07:28 PM | #115 | |
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...and you still have not answered my previous posts. |
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07-22-2004, 07:43 PM | #116 | ||
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First Question: When was Matthew's day ? Here is a passage from Luke 4 Quote:
So Matthew's teacher had a different Bible than Matthew, right? Second question Why does Matthew quote from the LXX and not from the same Bible as his teacher? And do answer my previous posts as well. Tell us why Matthew abandoned the LXX when he did not like what he found. I eagerly await your answers. |
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07-23-2004, 04:02 AM | #117 | ||
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WILLOWevcTREE:
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My statement stands. Here it is again: Quote:
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07-23-2004, 05:33 AM | #118 | |||||
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Psalm 8:2 You, Lord (give strength to infants)/(make infants praise you) because of your enemies Matthew 21:15-16 The temple folks saw what Jesus had done and mentioned children crying (out?) and got mad. Jesus quotes (sort of) Psalm 8. This cannot be prophecy due to its sheer nebulousness. Psalm 8 can be "fulfilled" in perpetuity as long as someone quotes it when children cry around an adversary of the Lord. Quote:
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07-23-2004, 07:17 AM | #119 | |||
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07-23-2004, 08:49 AM | #120 | |
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