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Old 12-18-2005, 03:56 PM   #31
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Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
If you notice he said that his church said that the Peshitta is the original Aramaic. Obviously, we're done dealing with reasonable arguments.
If the Peshitta is not the original, it is the closest that we have to the original.

"For many centuries, the Christian church had two distinct branches that knew practically nothing about one another. As the Roman Catholic church spread westwards, the churches in Syria, Persia, India, and China flourished and grew from the 1st Century onwards. Instead of carrying Greek texts with them, as their western counterparts, these churches utilized Aramaic Manuscripts. In the last 100 years, these manuscripts have been brought under critical light... and some astonishing phenomena have been uncovered, as to the language that was used to compose the New Testament, itself..."
http://www.aramaicnt.org/NEW/index.php?p=2
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Old 12-18-2005, 03:57 PM   #32
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LOL - I devasted OF's "article" and he can only reply with Eusebius. What a waste of time that was.
You have not 'devestated' anything.

Again, I point you to Matthew 24:34 in the Aramaic -
http://www.aramaicpeshitta.com/Arama.../Mattich24.pdf
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Old 12-18-2005, 04:15 PM   #33
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OF

Regulars to this forum know the aramaic priority issue is rubbish and that the reference from Eusebius is not out Matt.

Please pull up any thread created by judge.

And thanks for the just-so stories - you never disappoint.
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Old 12-18-2005, 04:17 PM   #34
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Regulars to this forum know the aramaic priority issue is rubbish
I beg to differ. It is rubbish to expect a transliteration of Jesus' words (the Greek) to be accurate in every detail.

Aramaic Peshitta Primacy Proof
http://www.peshitta.netfirms.com/
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Old 12-18-2005, 04:40 PM   #35
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Originally Posted by Orthodox_Freethinker
When did I mention Papias? :huh:
Eusebius was quoting Papias. :banghead:

The Peshitta is a translation from Greek. It is not the original text.
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Old 12-18-2005, 04:44 PM   #36
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The Peshitta is a translation from Greek. It is not the original text.
The Greek is a translation from Aramaic. It is not the original text.

For a moment, allow us to assume that you are correct. In the Greek, the word which translates as 'generation' is GENEA, which can refer to a race of people rather than a generation:
"Independently of the idea of time, generation is employed to mean a race or class of men as characterized by the same recurring condition or quality. In this sense, the Bible speaks of a "just generation", literally "generation of the just" [Ps. xiii (Heb., xiv), 6; etc.], a "perverse generation", equivalent to: "generation of the wicked" [Deut., xxxii, 5; Mark, ix, 18 (Gr., verse 19); etc.]."
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/06412c.htm

In the Aramaic, rather than 'generation', we have the word 'tribe'. This only corroborates that Jesus did not predict His return to be within the first century.
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Old 12-18-2005, 05:08 PM   #37
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Originally Posted by Orthodox_Freethinker
The Greek is a translation from Aramaic. It is not the original text.
Evidence? Are you aware that practically nobody, including conservative Christian Bible scholars, believes this to be the case? The problem with the Peshitta Primacy argument is that it draws a fallacious conclusion from some Aramaisms which may have survived in the sayings tradition. There isn't a lot of scholarly doubt that some of the sayings were Aramaic in origin however, those sayings had already been translated into Greek before the NT was written. The Gospel of Matthew as a whole composition is pure Koine. Just because you can find some Aramaic in the sayings doesn't mean that the Peshitta must therefore be the primal source, and it isn't.
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Old 12-18-2005, 05:24 PM   #38
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When did I mention Papias?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Orthodox_Freethinker
"Matthew published a written gospel for the Hebrews in their own tongue, while Peter and Paul were preaching the gospel in Rome and founding the church there. After their passing, Mark also, the disciple and interpreter of Peter, transmitted to us in writing the things preached by Peter. Luke ... . Lastly, John ..." (Irenaeus, Against Heresies, 3.1.2; cf. Eusebius, H.E., 5.8)

"the traditional view of the four gospels which alone are undeniably authentic in the church of God on earth. First to be written was that of the one-time exciseman who became an apostle of Jesus Christ - Matthew; it was published for believers of Jewish origin, and was composed in Hebrew letters/language. Next came that of Mark, who followed Peter's instructions in writing it ... Next came that of Luke, who wrote for Gentile converts ... Last of all came John's." (Origen cited in Eusebius, H.E., 6.25).
Irenaeus was writing towards the end of the second century, and any way he lloks to be dependant upon Papias, ignoring the fact that Papias was clearly not referring to out canonical gospel of Matt. Also, Ireneaus gives no indication that any of the others was written in anything but Greek, and he quotes all of them (including Matt.) in Greek. Origin was was writing in the the third century, and was probably dependant on Papias or some other (maybe Irenaeus?) who knew him. All of the Greek texts antedate the Peshitta in age and in reference by the fathers. Greek wins.
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Old 12-18-2005, 05:34 PM   #39
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Once again people, I repeat my call for disengagement. It's futile. FUTILE!
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Old 12-18-2005, 08:11 PM   #40
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Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
Evidence?
Firstly, there is the patristic evidence. Another evidence is how the words of Jesus are more clear in the Aramaic than the Greek, which is expected considering that Aramaic is the language which Jesus spoke.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
Just because you can find some Aramaic in the sayings doesn't mean that the Peshitta must therefore be the primal source, and it isn't.
Whether or not the Peshitta is the Aramaic original, Jesus' words were spoken and written down in Aramaic.
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