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Old 05-03-2008, 10:10 PM   #91
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1. Paul's lack of clear placement of Jesus in another sphere. No description is made of his having been somewhere other than earth.
Except in heaven.
Before his descension, and after his death. I thought it was clear I was referring to his life in the flesh.


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Where does Paul refer to Jesus as a man?
Romans 5:15,17,18,19

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2. The lack of any reference by Paul to opposition that claimed Paul's Jesus was a figment of people's imagination.
Who or what was the other Jesus that Paul's opponents preached, referred to in 2nd Corinthians 11:1-4?
I don't know. The verse is too vague to conclude that those opponents claimed Paul's Jesus was a figment of people's imagination.



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If Doherty's theory is correct, there was no historicist opposition to Paul and no reason for him to oppose a historicist interpretation, or for historicists to oppose him.
The lack of a knowledge of an actual historical Jesus during Paul's day doesn't imply that there was no opposition to the idea of a Messiah-not-on-earth. Do you really think there wouldn't have been Jews in opposition to the idea of a Messiah who didn't fulfill their conception of scriptural prophecies of a Messiah-king in the line of David?

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The whole issue of historicity is a modern issue. The ancients argued about whether the savior was of the same substance as god or merely a similar substance, or other issues that seem to silly to argue about now.

Then why does ACTS make such a big deal about how the early Christians searched the scriptures to prove that the man who was crucified had been the Messiah? Why were docetists considered heretics? It sounds to me like historicity was a real issue to people of that time. Historicity clearly isn't a "modern issue" only.

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Old 05-03-2008, 10:26 PM   #92
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I don't know. The verse is too vague to conclude that those opponents claimed Paul's Jesus was a figment of people's imagination.
You misinterpret most mythicist theories by saying that the mythical Jesus was a figment of people's imaginations. The MJ was a real, important force in their religion.

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If Doherty's theory is correct, there was no historicist opposition to Paul and no reason for him to oppose a historicist interpretation, or for historicists to oppose him. The whole issue of historicity is a modern issue. The ancients argued about whether the savior was of the same substance as god or merely a similar substance, or other issues that seem to silly to argue about now.

Then why does ACTS make such a big deal about how the early Christians searched the scriptures to prove that the man who was crucified had been the Messiah?
Because no man who was actually crucified was involved. You are inserting a crucified man into what the NT actually says. Early Christians searched the Jewish scriptures to discover the savior. If there had actually been a crucified teacher in recent memory, why look for him in a book?

Perhaps it would help if you quoted the exact words from Acts.

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Why were docetists considered heretics?
Because they had the incorrect answer to the question of the real substance of the savior.

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It sounds to me like historicity was a real issue to people of that time. Historicity clearly isn't a "modern issue" only. Do you really think there wouldn't have been Jews in opposition to the idea of a Messiah who didn't fulfill their conception of scriptural prophecies of a Messiah?
Jesus clearly didn't fulfil the prophecies, except for the peculiar way that Christians read the scriptures (Luke 24:45). Why don't we have a record of their opposition from the first century?
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Old 05-03-2008, 10:57 PM   #93
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I don't know. The verse is too vague to conclude that those opponents claimed Paul's Jesus was a figment of people's imagination.
You misinterpret most mythicist theories by saying that the mythical Jesus was a figment of people's imaginations. The MJ was a real, important force in their religion.



Because no man who was actually crucified was involved. You are inserting a crucified man into what the NT actually says. Early Christians searched the Jewish scriptures to discover the savior. If there had actually been a crucified teacher in recent memory, why look for him in a book?

Perhaps it would help if you quoted the exact words from Acts.

Because they had the incorrect answer to the question of the real substance of the savior.

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It sounds to me like historicity was a real issue to people of that time. Historicity clearly isn't a "modern issue" only. Do you really think there wouldn't have been Jews in opposition to the idea of a Messiah who didn't fulfill their conception of scriptural prophecies of a Messiah?
Jesus clearly didn't fulfil the prophecies, except for the peculiar way that Christians read the scriptures (Luke 24:45). Why don't we have a record of their opposition from the first century?
I'm going to bed and will respond tomorrow.
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Old 05-03-2008, 11:30 PM   #94
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Where does Paul refer to Jesus as a man?
Romans 5:15,17,18,19
Perhaps a clearer question might have been:

"Where does Paul portray Jesus as human?"

Splitting hairs? What about the man/men/angel/angels who were at the tomb to announce the resurrection? Were they human? What about the man who wrestled with Jacob in Gen 32:24? The LXX calls him a man.


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Old 05-04-2008, 01:51 AM   #95
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Why were docetists considered heretics?
A more relevant question should be

"when were docetists considered heretics?"

I asked a while back how there could be such "heresies" when there was an established orthodoxy, given that the heretics were true believers in their "heresies". The Arian heresy was a heresy only because the issue had no significance prior to when the conflict broke out. The resolution of the conflict determined the orthodox position in the matter which was heterodox before, if even seriously considered.

Could the docetists have formed their theology after the imposition of orthodoxy regarding the humanity of Jesus? I don't think so.


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Old 05-04-2008, 02:40 AM   #96
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My understanding of Doherty's position is somewhat different (correct me if I'm wrong). The proto-mythicist narratives don't just get misinterpreted, the texts (which is all we have and all we care about), are read by a particular class of people in a particular community and over time are transformed from a mythic narrative to a recognizable historical narrative.
When - if ever - has xianity been historical? Fully god fully man?
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Old 05-04-2008, 08:12 AM   #97
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I don't know. The verse is too vague to conclude that those opponents claimed Paul's Jesus was a figment of people's imagination.
You misinterpret most mythicist theories by saying that the mythical Jesus was a figment of people's imaginations. The MJ was a real, important force in their religion.
The question of relevance is "Which people?". I claim we would expect Paul to have opponents that would have accused Paul of simply making a cosmic Jesus up out of his imagination. This could be those who believed Jesus had actually walked the earth, or those who didn't know of a historical Jesus but believed the Messiah would walk the earth, or those who simply thought Paul was a nut case and didn't like him and what his gospel was attempting to do.


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Then why does ACTS make such a big deal about how the early Christians searched the scriptures to prove that the man who was crucified had been the Messiah?
Because no man who was actually crucified was involved. You are inserting a crucified man into what the NT actually says. Early Christians searched the Jewish scriptures to discover the savior. If there had actually been a crucified teacher in recent memory, why look for him in a book?

Perhaps it would help if you quoted the exact words from Acts.
The "pre-Paul" part of Acts is steeped in belief in historicity, frequently referring to Jesus as the man they had known, who was crucified. Peter is portrayed a number of times as using the scriptures to prove/support his faith in Jesus as the Christ position. One example is 2:22-36 Note how important the history of Jesus was to Peter:

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22"Men of Israel, listen to these words: Jesus the Nazarene, a man attested to you by God with miracles and wonders and signs which God performed through Him in your midst, just as you yourselves know--
23this Man, delivered over by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God, you nailed to a cross by the hands of godless men and put Him to death.

24"But God raised Him up again, putting an end to the agony of death, since it was impossible for Him to be held in its power.

25"For David says of Him,
'I SAW THE LORD ALWAYS IN MY PRESENCE;
FOR HE IS AT MY RIGHT HAND, SO THAT I WILL NOT BE SHAKEN.
26'THEREFORE MY HEART WAS GLAD AND MY TONGUE EXULTED;
MOREOVER MY FLESH ALSO WILL LIVE IN HOPE;
27BECAUSE YOU WILL NOT ABANDON MY SOUL TO HADES,
NOR ALLOW YOUR HOLY ONE TO UNDERGO DECAY.
28'YOU HAVE MADE KNOWN TO ME THE WAYS OF LIFE;
YOU WILL MAKE ME FULL OF GLADNESS WITH YOUR PRESENCE.'

29"Brethren, I may confidently say to you regarding the patriarch David that he both died and was buried, and his tomb is with us to this day.

30"And so, because he was a prophet and knew that GOD HAD SWORN TO HIM WITH AN OATH TO SEAT one OF HIS DESCENDANTS ON HIS THRONE,

31he looked ahead and spoke of the resurrection of the Christ, that HE WAS NEITHER ABANDONED TO HADES, NOR DID His flesh SUFFER DECAY.

32"This Jesus God raised up again, to which we are all witnesses.
33"Therefore having been exalted to the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, He has poured forth this which you both see and hear.

34"For it was not David who ascended into heaven, but he himself says:
'THE LORD SAID TO MY LORD,
"SIT AT MY RIGHT HAND,
35UNTIL I MAKE YOUR ENEMIES A FOOTSTOOL FOR YOUR FEET."'

36"Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God has made Him both Lord and Christ--this Jesus whom you crucified."
It's the same theme in another early occasion, 3:17-21:

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17"And now, brethren, I know that you acted in ignorance, just as your rulers did also.

18"But the things which God announced beforehand by the mouth of all the prophets, that His Christ would suffer, He has thus fulfilled.

19"Therefore repent and return, so that your sins may be wiped away, in order that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord;

20and that He may send Jesus, the Christ appointed for you,

21whom heaven must receive until the period of restoration of all things about which God spoke by the mouth of His holy prophets from ancient time.
And again in 4:10-11, he uses scripture to support his historical Jesus as Messiah. Again in 4:25-26. Again in 7:52.

Even in the Pauline section the scriptures were used to prove a historical Jesus as Christ (20:35 quotes Jesus' words)

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Acts 17:11Now these were more noble-minded than those in Thessalonica, for they received the word with great eagerness, examining the Scriptures daily to see whether these things were so.
Acts 18:28
for he powerfully refuted the Jews in public, demonstrating by the Scriptures that Jesus was the Christ.[/quote]

Given this portrayal of such a strong need to support an alleged historical crucified Jesus as Messiah with scriptural ARGUMENTS, how can you imply that the issue would not have been important to anyone who isn't "modern" with your claim?:

Quote:
Originally Posted by toto
The whole issue of historicity is a modern issue. The ancients argued about whether the savior was of the same substance as god or merely a similar substance, or other issues that seem to silly to argue about now.


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Quote:
Why were docetists considered heretics?

Because they had the incorrect answer to the question of the real substance of the savior.
Why would that matter if they only believed in what he said or did?



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Originally Posted by ted
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Originally Posted by toto
It sounds to me like historicity was a real issue to people of that time. Historicity clearly isn't a "modern issue" only. Do you really think there wouldn't have been Jews in opposition to the idea of a Messiah who didn't fulfill their conception of scriptural prophecies of a Messiah?
Jesus clearly didn't fulfil the prophecies, except for the peculiar way that Christians read the scriptures (Luke 24:45). Why don't we have a record of their opposition from the first century?
Just answer the question:
Do you really think there wouldn't have been Jews in opposition to the idea of a Messiah who didn't fulfill their conception of scriptural prophecies of a Messiah? If there were Paul's and his followers going around saying that the Messiah had come in a parallel universe, been crucified, and rose, and is now appearing to people, would there have been opposition, and would it have been directed to Paul?

In Acts the opposition is so strong against Jesus as a human Messiah. I would expect even MORE opposition against Jesus as a cosmic Messiah.



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Romans 5:15,17,18,19
Perhaps a clearer question might have been:

"Where does Paul portray Jesus as human?"

Splitting hairs? What about the man/men/angel/angels who were at the tomb to announce the resurrection? Were they human? What about the man who wrestled with Jacob in Gen 32:24? The LXX calls him a man.


spin
Sure, that is a possibility spin. However, since Paul doesn't say he wasn't really a man, it is legitimate to call this a silence on his part which one might not expect. In the LXX and other examples you gave, it was clear where those events took place.



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A more relevant question should be

"when were docetists considered heretics?"

I asked a while back how there could be such "heresies" when there was an established orthodoxy, given that the heretics were true believers in their "heresies". The Arian heresy was a heresy only because the issue had no significance prior to when the conflict broke out. The resolution of the conflict determined the orthodox position in the matter which was heterodox before, if even seriously considered.

Could the docetists have formed their theology after the imposition of orthodoxy regarding the humanity of Jesus? I don't think so.
I don't know why not. IF a man had lived and believed to have been part God himself, I see no logical reason to conclude that a branch of belief couldn't have sprouted which said that that man really only "appeared" to be a man.

It seems to me that part of the labeling of docetics as heretics is in defence of the gospels as historically accurate and not just spiritually accurate--ie he REALLY WAS born of Mary, he really did suffer on the cross, as portrayed..

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Old 05-04-2008, 08:50 AM   #98
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Hi Gamera and Toto,

I think we have to talk about genres. Narrative genres generally have set rules which are clear to people knowledgeable about the genres, but not so clear to others. At the edges, genres, over time, can blend to form new genres.

If I may use movies as an example, there is a genre known as film noir.


Now, almost every movie theoretician has a different definition of what the basic elements of film noire are and therefore categorize it differently.Here is a general description from wikipedia:

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Film noir is a cinematic term used primarily to describe stylish Hollywood crime dramas, particularly those that emphasize moral ambiguity and sexual motivation. Hollywood's classic film noir period is generally regarded as stretching from the early 1940s to the late 1950s. Film noir of this era is associated with a low-key black-and-white visual style that has roots in German Expressionist cinematography, while many of the prototypical stories and much of the attitude of classic noir derive from the hardboiled school of crime fiction that emerged in the United States during the Depression.

Under this definition films like Renoir's "La Bete Humane" Hitchcock's "Rebecca" and Aldrich's "Kiss Me Deadly" would probably be included as examples of flim noir. Yet one could suggest that "La Bete Humane" is more correctly classed as psychological thriller, "Rebecca" as modern gothic romance and "Kiss me Deadly" as anti-hero, hard-boiled detective-mystery fiction. On the other hand, films like "Detour," "D.O.A." and "Double Indemnity" seem like more straight forward examples of film noir. If one wishes to use a strict definition, there were probably only about one hundred films made between 1945-1955 that clearly should be labeled film noir, with a somewhat looser definition, one could probably find a thousand and even Brian DePalma's "Black Dahlia" which was released last year would qualify.

Genres also change over time. March of Time newsreels in the 1930's were considered documentary films, yet they were often carefully scripted before shot and used a great deal of staged or restaged footage. For example, a script would be written and Shirley Temple would be told by a director how to act, what to do and what to say for a specific newsreel. How does this differ from a scripted fictional story that she acted in. In a certain sense it does in that she was playing Shirley Temple, Hollywood child star in the newsreels, which did in some sense resemble her true life situation; while in the fictional narratives she was given different names and positions in society. Yet both the documentaries and fiction films both served to give false impressions of reality and in some sense worked together to reinforce them.

The novel "Zorba" is certainly fiction, but it is filtered through a zen-communist sensibility and the journalistic realism of the 19th century French novels of Flaubert and Balzac combined with the psychology-minded erotic playfulness of James Joyce and D.H. Lawrence. The film "Zorba" uses documentary techniques like handheld camera (especially the early boat scenes) and zooming. These were influenced by French New Wave cinema, which was influenced by the documentary techniques of newscameramen and home movies.

We can trace the development of the Jesus character through a number of genres:

In the Pauline epistles and Revelation, Jesus Christ appears to be more or less another name for Yahweh. In the sayings gospels, we are getting a collection of wiseman sayings, like the collection of sayings of Chinese philosopher Confucius. In Mark and John, for the most part, we are getting Jesus as a prophet possessed by the Holy Spirit, as in the later Hebrew Scriptures. Luke seems to be a real attempt to historicize the Jesus character using material mainly from Josephus. It seems quite similar to the historical biography of Appolonius of Tyana which may have been his model, and allows us to date the work to the reign of Septimius Severus. Acts of the Apostles seems to be a rewrite of a prior work detailing the adventures of the prophets Peter and John. The Jesus character is added briefly to the beginning of the work and the John character transforms suddenly in the middle into Paul, but as a whole it seems close to the historical fiction of Titus Petronius' "Satyricon".
So, at this stage, Jesus has appeared to go from a purely fictional character to a character that is part fiction, part historical. It is not until the Fourth century and Eusebius that we find him being made into a fully historical character. Although, Eusebius' History of the Church has to be considered a special genre of history in itself.

Thus the transformation is not directly from fiction to historical. What we see is that the Jesus character goes through a slow, nearly 300 year process of movement from simply a name into more and more realistic mixed genres until he becomes a historical character.

I believe that this is the same process that all mythological characters who were believed to be historical went through. This may be considered an anti-Euhemerist notion. Kings were not turned into Gods over time, but Gods were turned into Kings over time or met with kings by insertion into more and more realistic literary genres.

Warmly,

Philosopher Jay


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Doherty concentrates his case on Paul, and I forget exactly what he says about Mark, but a number of mythicists hypothesize that Mark's narrative was written as an allegory or a novel with no intent of representing history, but that it was later (mis)interpreted as literal history. So I think that Jay's examples are exactly on point.

What I meant was, do you think that the character Zorba is historical? He is a character in a novel. But in other of Kazantzakis' writings, including his "autobiography," Alexis Zorbas is identified as a real person, and Kazantzakis claims to have based all of his fiction on real life. But - that autobiography has a number of features that make one wonder if it is reliable, or was just a further exercise in fiction.
My understanding of Doherty's position is somewhat different (correct me if I'm wrong). The proto-mythicist narratives don't just get misinterpreted, the texts (which is all we have and all we care about), are read by a particular class of people in a particular community and over time are transformed from a mythic narrative to a recognizable historical narrative.

This is an important distinction. As I pointed out, people (especially literate people) are pretty good at discerning genres. Read the first page of Zorba the Greek and you will immediately know by the conventions (the first person, the detailed perceptions, the impossible perspectives) that it is a novel.

Literate people in antiquity were just like us. They understood genres. That's why genres existed. So, Jay's example is exactly off point. This is not a case of ignorant or lackadaisical persons getting befuddled about fictional characters. It's a case of literate people (who weree relatively rare at the time) reading genres and utterly and completely not understanding them (but nonetheless transforming them from one genre to the next).

This doesn't add up.

As to Zorba, you're raising an epistomological question that is far broader than this issue can bear. I think you know my position, which is rather radical, and that is the distinction between historical texts and fictive texts is discursive --it isn't about "real" people versus "fictional" people, since histories are also narratives and just texts. The reading of a text is not life, so histories aren't about "real" people, but a relationship with the past that is textual in nature.

So to answer your question, not only do we not know if Zorba was a real person, but we can never know, and we don't have to know. The book is a novel and is experienced as a novel (as opposed to a history of Crete). Neither this novel nor a history of Crete gets us any closer to whatever person Katzansakis met or didn't meet.
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Old 05-04-2008, 08:53 AM   #99
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You are being asked, my friend, if seeing a text from a book you could tell whether the events happened as described.
The reason I think certain events happened is not just because of the way it "strikes" me. In addition to that, are the following:

1. The apparant speed at with is was accepted within the Christian community as being factual, at least with regard to the historicity of Jesus.
2. The lack of any record of it in the Christian literature as being controversial with regard to the historicity of Jesus.
3. The lack of any hint of an apology or tipping of the hat by the author of knowledge that he was making up a character.
ad 1] Which certain events happened, Ted ? When did the Christian community accept them as factual and what does that mean in the understanding of the early believer communities ?

ad 2] It has been repeated several times here that the idea of historicity of Jesus as a recognized approach to the subject originates in the Enlightment. The thinkers in antiquity simply did not have the cognitive analytical tools to operate with such a term.

ad 3] I have just run a post to show that one can make a case, based on a psychological model, that Jesus was in fact invented. Within that scenario, the tipping of the hat would be rather obvious. Jesus, the God's one and only Son, was seen as insane by the contemporaries to whom God did not reveal (privately) the truth about his suffering. (Mk 3:21, 3:28-30, Mt 10:24, 24:26, Lk 4:23, Jn 7:19-20, 8:48, 10:20, 1 Cr 1:18-31). The way this would be read by most competent psychotherapists today, is that in the early communities used Jesus as a figure of speech to express hope that their own perceived insanity was in fact a deeper knowledge of the universe and revelation of God's plan for humanity.

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Probably unknown to Lewis was that Schweitzer set aside John's gospel as fiction, when assessing the mental health of the gospel Jesus (The Psychiatric Study of Jesus, 1913). This seemed preferrable course for the theologian and physician to defending the flagrant dementia of the person realistically reported to have been revealing himself in the first person singular.
Perhaps there were a number of unstated other reasons Schweitzer had doubts about John, unrelated to how the content "read" to him.

What would these unspoken reasons be ? I wonder. Schweitzer was a very blunt and straightforward man.

I think it's more likely that you do not understand the psychiatric issue, that he understood very well (BTW, the book cited was his medical doctoral dissertation).

The ego eimi (I am) phrases in John are without a doubt ideas of reference, which presence defines paranoid mentation. In the diagnostic etiology available to Schweitzer such ideas most frequently point to dementia praecox (schizophrenia) or manic-depression (bi-polar disorder).

So right here, you have the most compelling reason for inventing Jesus. The messianic self-consciousness, even in antiquity was perceived as abnormal. No historical individual could sustain it without being dismissed as a fool (or a tyrant, if the self-glorification occured in a ruler).

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Old 05-04-2008, 09:25 AM   #100
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The reason I think certain events happened is not just because of the way it "strikes" me. In addition to that, are the following:

1. The apparant speed at with is was accepted within the Christian community as being factual, at least with regard to the historicity of Jesus.
2. The lack of any record of it in the Christian literature as being controversial with regard to the historicity of Jesus.
3. The lack of any hint of an apology or tipping of the hat by the author of knowledge that he was making up a character.
ad 1] Which certain events happened, Ted ? When did the Christian community accept them as factual and what does that mean in the understanding of the early believer communities ?
Which events? I suspect Jesus preached, had followers, maybe was seen as a miracle-worker, was crucified, and later believed to have been resurrected. I think those were all immediately accepted as factual. The gospels were likely also mostly accepted soon after they were written, accept for the differences the other gospels attempted to correct. Fast acceptance makes sense: The gospels simply "fleshed out" the basics--adding more teachings, more miracles, more details. And, fast acceptance is attested to by the evidence. The gospels were all written within a generation of each other. The fast acceptance is strong evidence for a historical core.

Quote:
ad 2] It has been repeated several times here that the idea of historicity of Jesus as a recognized approach to the subject originates in the Enlightment. The thinkers in antiquity simply did not have the cognitive analytical tools to operate with such a term.
How arrogant that sounds! Thinkers in antiquity were not any less smart than us. Do you not recall the early verses of Luke?

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1Inasmuch as many have undertaken to compile an account of the things accomplished among us, 2just as they were handed down to us by those who from the beginning were eyewitnesses and servants of the word,
3it seemed fitting for me as well, having investigated everything carefully from the beginning, to write it out for you in consecutive order, most excellent Theophilus; 4so that you may know the exact truth about the things you have been taught.
Sounds to me like the author is expressing a desire to reflect accurate, actual history.


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ad 3] I have just run a post to show that one can make a case, based on a psychological model, that Jesus was in fact invented. Within that scenario, the tipping of the hat would be rather obvious. Jesus, the God's one and only Son, was seen as insane by the contemporaries to whom God did not reveal (privately) the truth about his suffering. (Mk 3:21, 3:28-30, Mt 10:24, 24:26, Lk 4:23, Jn 7:19-20, 8:48, 10:20, 1 Cr 1:18-31). The way this would be read by most competent psychotherapists today, is that in the early communities used Jesus as a figure of speech to express hope that their own perceived insanity was in fact a deeper knowledge of the universe and revelation of God's plan for humanity.
Sure, anything's possible. It just doesn't do much to explain the historical core evidence, how it was presented, and how it was widely and quickly corroberated.


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What would these unspoken reasons be ? I wonder. Schweitzer was a very blunt and straightforward man.
I meant "unstated" by you. There may have been other reasons to reject John than the use of the first person.



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The ego eimi (I am) phrases in John are without a doubt ideas of reference, which presence defines paranoid mentation. In the diagnostic etiology available to Schweitzer such ideas most frequently point to dementia praecox (schizophrenia) or manic-depression (bi-polar disorder).
Or, an eyewitness is relating what he experienced.. duh.

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So right here, you have the most compelling reason for inventing Jesus. The messianic self-consciousness, even in antiquity was perceived as abnormal. No historical individual could sustain it without being dismissed as a fool (or a tyrant, if the self-glorification occured in a ruler).
Who would dismiss them as a fool? Perhaps someone who was actually concerned with historicity, accuracy, and truth? But, don't you say that such people didn't exist back then? Doesn't your theory require internal inconsistency?

Yes, these people were desparate. The Jewish were obsessed with the coming of the Messiah. It wasn't an abnormal thing at all. In fact, it very well could explain how "normal" people came fairly easily to believe in a historical Jesus as the Messiah. Isn't it easier to believe that an interesting--perhaps imbalanced--man took on a Messiac-type role that others latched onto, than the idea that people invented a Messiah out of thin air and then believed their own invention?

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