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06-05-2012, 06:37 AM | #51 | |||
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And again, the so-called Epistle to the Hebrews is considered to be LATER than the Pauline letters so they SUPPORT the claim that the CELESTIAL Jesus was LATER. Quote:
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The actual DATED NT manuscripts have RESOLVED the Pauline puzzle. The claims made by the Pauline writers did NOT happen in the 1st century BEFORE c 70 CE. We have the BIG BLACK HOLE of the 1st century--that is PRECISELY what the DATED manuscripts show. We have the FAKE 1st century authors of ALL books of the Canon. We have FORGERIES of 1st century letters between Seneca and Paul. We have FORGERIES of 1st century writings in the works of Josephus. There is NO need for anymore flawed arguments---the EVIDENCE from antiquity is already in place. A BIG BLACK HOLE and FORGERIES for the 1st century. There can be NO BETTER circumstantial evidence AGAINST the argument for a real humnan Jesus. |
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06-05-2012, 07:58 AM | #52 | ||
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06-05-2012, 08:06 AM | #53 | |||
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which statement of gurugeorge are you talking about? Please identify the specific statement. Your statement that gurugeorge's statement is not really logical - is itself not really logical. - Because you have failed to identify it. Please clarify your position on this compelling issue using coherent language before continuing any further. |
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06-05-2012, 08:12 AM | #54 |
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Wasn’t Philo big on the Nomina Sacra thing?
Didn’t Philo write a dissertation called, “On the Change of Names?” Maybe that would explain why he didn’t explicitly say “Joshua” or “Jesus”. Maybe he was on a campaign to remove all divine names from the scripture. - I'm just speculating. But I think it's a possibility worth considering. |
06-05-2012, 08:21 AM | #55 |
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Dear aa5874,
Please get a clue: I don’t think anyone is arguing that Philo explicitly said “Jesus.” I think the issue is if Philo wrote about Joshua/Jesus implicitly when he quoted Zechariah LXX. And unless I’m mistaken, it is axiomatic (at least for this discussion only) that the High Priest Joshua/Jesus character in Zechariah LXX was a precursor or building block for modern Jesus worship. Now what part of that are you having trouble understanding? Please keep in mind that you cannot agree or disagree with anything unless you understand it first. Right? |
06-05-2012, 08:38 AM | #56 | |
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Your 'argument' is laughable - not respectable. You do not appear to understand the issue at hand. |
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06-05-2012, 08:46 AM | #57 | |
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Not me. The Epistle to the Hebrews is unique in that it does not conflate “the LORD LXX” with Jesus. The Jesus in Hebrews appears to be based on Joshua the High Priest in Zechariah LXX. The Pauline letters on the other hand, do conflate “the LORD LXX” with Jesus. The trajectory that Jesus was first associated with Joshua the High Priest - and then later associated with ‘the LORD LXX’ makes more sense to me. |
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06-05-2012, 09:01 AM | #58 | ||||
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06-05-2012, 10:54 AM | #59 | |
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But back to Philo: anything is possible, but the reason why I think Philo is referring to Zech 6:12 ("man from the East") but not Zech 6:11 (Joshua son of J) is because Philo tells us who is making the comment, and it is a different person to the one making the comment in Zech 6. In the OT, the person making the "man from the East" comment is the Lord. This is being applied to Joshua son of J. In Philo, the person making the "man from the East" comment is "a companion of Moses". This appears (according to what I read) to be applied to Adam/Balaam, the good/bad man from the East. Now, someone later may well have decided to take Philo's explanation of "man from the East" as applying to the good man -- Adam, made in the image of God -- and then applied that to Zech 6:11's Joshua. In fact, some Christian apologists claim something like that. But that doesn't appear to be what Philo is saying. |
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06-12-2012, 01:27 PM | #60 | ||
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