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Old 11-29-2009, 01:05 PM   #91
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Originally Posted by ercatli View Post
I know a little Greek (not much more - though I once passed an exam in it, most of it's long gone from my mind) but I could not see anything in your comments here. If it is important, can you please explain it in simple propositions.
Read Mark 4:1-20. Jesus is the "word" and Peter is, well, Peter (rock). Which is what happens in Mark 14:27-72.

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Nothing else? Surely they can express observations of events? Or are you a historical sceptic who thinks we can know nothing of history for certain
Anyone who says that we can know things in history "for certain" is trying to sell you something. Especially in this case, where the only historical data is writings about someone, and no writings from the person himself.

History is not theology. History is (or should be) a science. And in the scientifc method, almost nothing is certain. All conclusions are tentative until a better explanation that accounts for the data is presented. Certainty is for religions.

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Please see my reference above (#53) to "Jesus and Archaeology" edited by James Charlesworth. Of course, there is not a gravestone marked "Yeshua bar Yosef", or anything so direct, but there is plenty of archaeology that supports the historical nature of much of the NT, and thus supports the existence of Jesus indirectly. For example, John's Gospel is generally thought to have been written in the last decade of the first century, long after Jesus' life and two decades after the destruction of Jerusalem. Yet several significant finds appear to confirm that the source(s) of John had accurate knowledge of Jerusalem, lending strength to the conclusion that John reports history, at least in many places.

What would you say?
This is a logical fallacy, plain and simple (a fallacy of composition). Transformers, G.I. Joe, Star Trek, ad nauseum all have things that can be archaeologically verified. For example, Serpentor was said to have the DNA of Ivan the Terrible, Alexander the Great, and other historical personages infused into his own to make him the best leader possible. Not only that, but DNA exists. Does it really follow, then, that because Serpentor's creation references real people and real things (DNA) that this "Serpentor" person actually exists and in the 80s lead a nefarious group of villains hell bent on taking over the world? Of course not. There's nothing stopping the gospel writers from simply placing a fictional character in a historical context. This has to be ruled out before claiming archaeological verification. The Book of Daniel placed a fictional character (Daniel) in a historical context (the exile) to comment on the author's contemporary situation (the Maccabean revolt c. 165 BCE).

What would count as "archaeologically verified" would be something like what we have of another Jewish Messiah. Simon Bar-Kokhba has coins minted from his brief reign of Jewish independence from Rome in 132 - 135 CE. There is also corroborating evidence from the writings of Christians, Jews, and Romans verifying Simon's existence.

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Originally Posted by ercatli View Post
(1) That John was "refuting" the synoptics - one moment you're being sceptical that what the authors say in a document is factual, now you are reading between the lines to an inference about what they don't actually say, and we can believe that to be factual?
Where did I say that John was refuting the synoptics?

FYI:
Quote:
Originally Posted by Irenaeus, Against Heresies (c. 175 CE)
1.26.1 Cerinthus, again, a man who was educated in the wisdom of the Egyptians, taught that the world was not made by the primary God, but by a certain Power far separated from him, and at a distance from that Principality who is supreme over the universe, and ignorant of him who is above all. He represented Jesus as having not been born of a virgin, but as being the son of Joseph and Mary according to the ordinary course of human generation, while he nevertheless was more righteous, prudent, and wise than other men. Moreover, after his baptism, Christ descended upon him in the form of a dove from the Supreme Ruler, and that then he proclaimed the unknown Father, and performed miracles. But at last Christ departed from Jesus, and that then Jesus suffered and rose again, while Christ remained impassible, inasmuch as he was a spiritual being.

3.11.1. John, the disciple of the Lord, preaches this faith, and seeks, by the proclamation of the Gospel, to remove that error which by Cerinthus had been disseminated among men
Note that this means that Cerinthus was either a contemporary or an antecedent of John. Depending on when you date John's gospel, Cerinthus came before it.

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Originally Posted by ercatli View Post
(2) Are there any of the earliest writings, especially those in the NT, that describe Jesus as "a spirit being that only looked human"?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Justin Martyr, First Apology (c. 150 CE)
And there is Marcion, a man of Pontus, who is even at this day alive, and teaching his disciples to believe in some other god greater than the Creator. And he, by the aid of the devils, has caused many of every nation to speak blasphemies, and to deny that God is the maker of this universe, and to assert that some other being, greater than He, has done greater works. All who take their opinions from these men, are, as we before said, called Christians; just as also those who do not agree with the philosophers in their doctrines, have yet in common with them the name of philosophers given to them.
You can also read Tertullian's Against Marcion (c. 200 CE) for what Marcion most likely believed, which was Docetism.

Note that prior to Justin Martyr's gospel harmony (or his student Tatian's), the four gospels were being used independently by different sects of Christians. Not only that, but according to the proto-Catholics, these heretical Christians used "modified" versions of the four, while other less popular gospels were used by yet smaller sects of Christians.

The Ebionites, for example, claimed to be descendents of James the Just and his church. They apparently used a version of Matthew that didn't have the nativity. Whether our nativity scene is before or after the Ebionites is uncertain. Ignatius c. 96 CE writes about Jesus' miraculous birth, but we don't know if he's quoting Matthew or if our current Matthew used Ignatius as a source. Not only that, but Ignatius arrives to us today with multiple interpolations.

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Originally Posted by ercatli View Post
We agree about your first sentence then. But documents aren't necessarily just one thing or the other. Of course, when doing hsitory, "we shouldn't treat everything they write as 100% factual reporting", but neither can we simply discard them as 0% history. The gospels are a mixture of history, personal reminiscence, theology, whatever, and historians try to separate them out.
And how exactly do historians separate them out? It's well within your intellectual capacity to question their methodology and see if it matches the methodoloy of the historical reconstructions behind other people from antiquity.

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Quote:
The Jesus Seminar concluded that only 18% of the sayings of Jesus that arrive to us today were said by him. But how did they arrive at that number? They assumed the Jesus they were looking for and only accepted the sayings they thought this Jesus would have said. I hope I don't have to point out that this is simply circular, and is why every time some scholar or popular writer tries to find the "historical Jesus" we end up with a different Jesus every time. All based on the assumptions used to winnow that Jesus from these theological writings.
I agree with you here. The Jesus Seminar is pretty much a thing of the past, and my amateur assessment is that it was a blip in NT studies that has not ultimately influential. And I agree that scholars and (more so) popular writers, come up with different, and sometimes amazing, interpretations. But note that these are their summaries of the historical evidence. There is broad agreement about a solid core of historical knowledge about Jesus, and about other matters which cannot be decided by history alone, and of course argument about details. This is what we should be looking at first, not the interpretation each scholar gives to those facts. Would you agree?
It depends on what you mean by "solid historical core". The only solid historical core is that there might have been a person named "Joshua" who was executed during the tenure of Pontius Pilate. But then again, Pilate probably executed myriads of Jews (and Samaritans) named Joshua. He wasn't exactly known for his patience. Quite the opposite, actually... which is contrary to how Christians portrayed him. Probably so they could blame the death of Jesus on the Jews for theological reasons.

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Originally Posted by ercatli View Post
Thanks again for your comments. Where have we got? We have discussed some matters, but I'm not sure if you have put forward a definite statement to answer my original question.
History isn't a hard science. It's basically reconstructed sociology of the past. We would be more certain about who the Nazarene Jesus was if we had writings from the man himself. As it is, we only have what certain (highly superstitious) people thought about him. The skepticism that you use when dealing with other modern superstitions didn't exist among common people in antiquity, only among the educated elite. These four factors (sociology, in the past, no writings from Jesus, and rampant credulity) alone should give us a huge pause before we conclude things about Jesus the Nazarene with rock solid certainty. As it is, in my opinion the only position that we should take in regards to the historicity of this person is agnosticism.
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Old 11-29-2009, 01:27 PM   #92
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Originally Posted by ercatli View Post
But I'm not interested in defending a view at present, but in asking what your views are.
You do know that that is the type of response one expects from a historical Jesusist. The "I won't put my cards on the table at least until you do" way of thinking.


spin
I'm really, really struggling not to take a shot back here. Really struggling.

Does the team with Acharya S really want to start trading blows about cliched proponents?
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Old 11-29-2009, 01:29 PM   #93
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Gday,

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Originally Posted by ercatli View Post
I wonder if I am misunderstanding you. There are clearly statements that are intended to be historical in the NT. For example, in a much argued-over passage Luke says in Acts 18:12 that "Gallio was proconsul of Achaia". This is a historical statement, and its truth or falsity should be assessed historically. Would you agree?
Oh please !
We are talking about Jesus, remember?
The NT is a book full of BELIEFS about Jesus.
Do you want to have a real discussion or not?



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Originally Posted by ercatli View Post
I have read very little on those topics. But where (if at all) they claim to be writing about actual events, those are historical statements, and where they are writing about beliefs, they are something different - probably metaphysics. Each needs to be assessed by the appropriate methods. Would you not agree?
Yes, I agree.
Which is why those beliefs are NOT accepted as reality.
Just like your beliefs about Jesus are not blindly accepted as reality.


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Originally Posted by ercatli View Post
It's not all that different in principle to reading a newspaper - some articles or paragraphs speak of events, and they have to assessed for truth in a quite different way to those that are providing editorial opinion. But the paper will generally have both. Again, would you not agree?
Why won't you answer questions put to you?
Yes or no -
Do you believe what Scientologists say about Xenu?
Yes or no?


["And there is NO archeology to support the existance of Jesus. None."]

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Originally Posted by ercatli View Post
An interesting statement, and one that could perhaps be taken in several ways.
Rubbish.
It can be taken in exactly ONE way -
"there is NO archeology to support the existance of Jesus."
It means exactly what it says.


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Originally Posted by ercatli View Post
I will try to take it on face value, and as such, I suggest it is incorrect. Prof James Charlesworth of Princeton University has edited a book "Jesus and Archaeology (or via: amazon.co.uk)" and it contains many examples of where the gospels have been verified by archaeology, thus "supporting" their truth on other matters. I have not read this book (though I intend to), but please look up the Amazon page and then perhaps you may wish to tell me if you still think the same, and why.
FFS !
You haven't even READ the book ?!

Which is why you FAILED to cite any examples from it, because there are NONE !

There is NO archeological evidence for Jesus existing.
None.

If YOU believe there is, then SHOW US!


K.
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Old 11-29-2009, 01:34 PM   #94
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Gday,

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Originally Posted by ercatli View Post
Finally, the NT witnesses are believers in miracles, demons, resurrection etc, all of which are scientifically untestable.
...
Before you can say that, you need to establish that "miracles, demons, resurrection etc" are merely and certainly "superstition", and I don't know how you could do that.
So there we have it -

ercatl thinks "miracles, demons, resurrection etc" could be true.

He doesn't know how we could determine they aren't true.

Wow.



K.
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Old 11-29-2009, 01:36 PM   #95
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Gday,

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Originally Posted by ercatli View Post
Please see my reference above (#53) to "Jesus and Archaeology" edited by James Charlesworth.
A book you HAVEN'T read,
which ISN'T by an archeologist,
and DOESN'T have any archeological evidence for Jesus.


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Originally Posted by ercatli View Post
For example, John's Gospel is generally thought to have been written in the last decade of the first century, long after Jesus' life and two decades after the destruction of Jerusalem. Yet several significant finds appear to confirm that the source(s) of John had accurate knowledge of Jerusalem, lending strength to the conclusion that John reports history, at least in many places.
G.John reports the expulsion from the synagogues as if it happened in Jesus' time.
It's completely wrong, on this and other matters.

But you just ignore the errors and problems that people bring up, and just keep on preaching your beliefs.


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Originally Posted by ercatli View Post
(2) Are there any of the earliest writings, especially those in the NT, that describe Jesus as "a spirit being that only looked human"?
Yes.
Why haven't you checked the facts ?
Even the NT refers to those who do NOT belief Jesus came in the flesh.
Did you skip that bit ?


K.
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Old 11-29-2009, 01:43 PM   #96
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Still, MJ seems way too much like wishful thinking to me.
Why limit the options? MJ is only one alternative to HJ (unless you overgeneralize the usage of "mythical" to mean "not historical").

The HJ process is simply bad methodology from go to "woe". One doesn't assume that there must be some substance a priori within a tradition. It's a ship that's destined to sink as it rolls down the slipway. Instead, start with the position that there may be substance and if there is how does one extract it? It is self-defeating though popular to work on the assumption that if you remove enough bad stuff you'll get to the good. Do you see people doing this with the traditions surrounding Robin Hood? The 0% option is a valid possibility (as seen in the case of Ebion -- who lacked the popular imagine of a religion behind him), so you shouldn't discount it out of hand as you do.

You start with what you can say, not with what you know you can't. And what can you say about Jesus (that you can't about Robin Hood)?


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Old 11-29-2009, 01:46 PM   #97
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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
You do know that that is the type of response one expects from a historical Jesusist. The "I won't put my cards on the table at least until you do" way of thinking.
I'm really, really struggling not to take a shot back here. Really struggling.

Does the team with Acharya S really want to start trading blows about cliched proponents?
I wouldn't know. Ask them. I don't really see much difference between the two parties.


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Old 11-29-2009, 01:46 PM   #98
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Gday,

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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon View Post
But it is evidence, since they talk about Jesus being a First Century person. Tacitus describes "Christ" being crucified under Pontius Pilate. If he got that from Christians, we need to ask: Why did Christians believe it? Because it wasn't true? It's possible, but there are no documents to suggest that.
Don,
you seem to be saying that people only believe things that are true - that if people believe, it must be true.

Is that your claim here?

K.
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Old 11-29-2009, 01:57 PM   #99
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ercatli
For example, John's Gospel is generally thought to have been written in the last decade of the first century, long after Jesus' life and two decades after the destruction of Jerusalem. Yet several significant finds appear to confirm that the source(s) of John had accurate knowledge of Jerusalem, lending strength to the conclusion that John reports history, at least in many places.
G.John reports the expulsion from the synagogues as if it happened in Jesus' time.
It's completely wrong, on this and other matters.
John also has the absurdity of Samaritans accepting a Jew as "the messiah".
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Old 11-29-2009, 02:06 PM   #100
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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon View Post
Tacitus describes "Christ" being crucified under Pontius Pilate. If he got that from Christians, we need to ask: Why did Christians believe it? Because it wasn't true?
Probably not for that reason.

What most ahistoricists think is that they believed it even though it wasn't true.
Sure, and they need to account for how churches that Paul wrote to in the 50s/60s were historicists by 110 CE. And that's because it IS evidence (I'm only questioning the comment that Tacitus is not evidence towards historicity)
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