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Old 05-08-2004, 07:20 AM   #11
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Vinnie
My latest addition to historical Jesus research is sure to ruffle some feathers!

http://www.after-hourz.net/ri/wasjesusgay.html

Rebuttals, flames, you are going to hells, and other criticisms are encouraged!

Vinnie
Talking about running a car on the whiff of an oil-rag, Vinnie.

If you had your way, you'd probably label most young men in Arab countries gay. The society segregates them from women and they spend all their sicial time in the company of other young men. Christ, Vinnie this is one gross retrojection of modern fuddy-duddy mentality onto an ancient past that we know very little about. What stimulated this crap? Have dreams about "secret mark"?

Oh, and look at Amos 2:16


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Old 05-08-2004, 09:42 AM   #12
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Having spent many months in the middle east (Saudi Arabia) working with men from several arab nations I would agree with Spin that the culture is very accepting of a greater intimacy between men than western culture is.

Men kissing, holding hands or even sleeping together (sleeping, not screwing) is not indicative of their being gay.

HJ may very well have sought comfort with another man, but within that culture it doesn't increase the probability of being gay to the degree it would in western culture.
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Old 05-08-2004, 12:30 PM   #13
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I shall refute your objections and all those offered elsewhere later tonight after my second shift or tomorrow.

For now, it will suffice to say that you have engaged in anachronism rather than me, spin, and I will demonstrate why.

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Old 05-08-2004, 03:29 PM   #14
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Originally Posted by Vinnie
For now, it will suffice to say that you have engaged in anachronism rather than me, spin, and I will demonstrate why.
I have never claimed anything other than it appeared you were making value judgments without enough information and apparently based on the mores of modern society. I did not retroject Arab society onto the past, but gave it as an analogy parallel to the data you were judging Jesus by.

What you need to do before making such judgments is to reconstruct what can be known about gayness of the era, so that you might be able to place the figure of Jesus within it.

So, feel happy to refute, but refute on topic and don't attempt to create anachronisms when there is no opportunity.


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Old 05-09-2004, 10:18 AM   #15
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Originally Posted by Vinnie
Wow! I just posted this and its like forty pages! Fast reader or skimmer

You have to read my arguments. I dig beneath the texts that survive to argue this. I don't merely cite the Bible. I use early Christian texts (intra and extra-canonical like Thomas, Secret Mark and so on). Saying "I use the Bible" is merely false terminology and raises red herrings.

I also bifurcated between two issues a) Was Jesus open to homosexuality and B) was Jesus himself homosexualy. A was deemed viertually certain whereas B more probable than not.

Using early Christian texts is all we have and my methodology is laid out in minor detail on that page, more detail elswhere, soon in full complete detail as my revamp is almost done

Vinnie
Perharps Earl Doherty commenting the arrest scene in his book-review of Price's 'The Incredible Shrinking Son of Man' refers to Vinnie?

"One scholar whose name escapes my memory built a case on this little enigma which postulated that Jesus was a homosexual, and this young man was somehow involved in such activities with him!

Price has a simple solution, and the only one I’ve seen that makes any sense. Like everything else in Mark’s passion story, it is a piece of midrash—completely gratuitous admittedly, since it does nothing to further the plot or support any editorial leaning. But it shows the extent of scriptural governance in the workings of the evangelists’ minds. Price suggests that Mark has read a verse in Amos 2:16 that he feels has prophetic significance: “In that day the strong man shall flee away naked.� He felt impelled to reflect it in his text, even though it served no purpose. Those who redacted Mark did not feel the same compulsion and simply cut it.

As for Judas, 'His role in Jesus’ arrest—a kiss on the cheek to identify the Master—makes little sense. It looks like Mark is simply coming up with something for him to do. Nor does any evangelist attempt to provide a motivation for the betrayal. Price points out that the scene often pointed to—the anointing at Bethany when bystanders complain about the waste of ointment on Jesus—does not identify the complainer as Judas, something Mark could easily have done. In fact, critical scholars have long recognized that Judas is likely a symbolic representation of the Jewish people, and the Jews have long suffered for that literary device. Matthew added to the force of the holocaust with his line “His suffering be on us and on our children,� something only he records, and which no respectable New Testament scholar today regards as anything but Matthew’s own invention'"
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Old 05-09-2004, 10:40 AM   #16
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Wasn't that scholar Morton Smith himself?
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Old 05-09-2004, 11:18 AM   #17
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Originally Posted by Vinnie
Wasn't that scholar Morton Smith himself?
Of course Vinnie, the Smith's thesis is your thesis in the post,

Regards,
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Old 05-09-2004, 06:44 PM   #18
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Both spin and attonitus received mention in my update. They must be cool

I did a major update in light of some ojections. I changed nothing of the text but added an appendix of positive and negative comments and added another where I address 10 objections to my paper:

Appendix 4. First Responses to Counter Arguments Since Publication.

a. Male-male intimacy is common in non-western world.
b. Secret Mark is a forgery.
c. Jesus wasn't directly accused of this.
d. Told the sinners he dined with to leave their life of sin.
e. Spoke against Sodom.
f. The created order is male-female.
g. Midrash. The naked young man in Mark comes from Amos 2:16
h. The naked young man is Mark signing his narrative.
i. Most men at the time were straight, therefore Jesus was straight.
j. Response to D-2 Criticisms of my arguments.


Relevant to this thread is a, b, and g.

I shall cite the Midrash explanation for the naked young man in Mark:

Quote:
G. Midrash. The Naked Young Man is Pulled From Amos 2:16. We have a naked young man following but fleeing in Mark. This supposedly is midrash that conjures up Amos 2:16:

16 Even the bravest warriors
will flee naked on that day,"
declares the LORD .


This argument fails completely. There is no knowledge whatsoever that either Mark or his audience would have understood such an oblique reference. This fact alone totally and completely destroys this arguments.

Mark has to 1) explain Jewish customs to his audience at times which makes us ask how they would have even gotten such a reference. 2) makes geography errors and cultural errors which shows he is outside Galilee and Judea, 3) he mistakenly claims all Jews washed their hands which (despite Gundry's objections in Mark) is an error. Mark himself, who has to explain Jewish customs does not even accurately know them! 4) he poorly uses scripture which he just barely has a working knowledge of.

To elaborate on argument number four note Mark 1:2-3:

It is written in Isaiah the prophet:


"I will send my messenger ahead of you,
who will prepare your way"[2] --
3"a voice of one calling in the desert,
'Prepare the way for the Lord,
make straight paths for him.'

As Randel Helms notes, "Mark is writing from an already-composed source rather than with a copy of Isaiah open in front of him; for he is apparently unaware that much of what he is quoting is not from Isaiah at all, but is in fact a merging of the first nine words of the Septuagint Greek version of Exodus 23:20 wit ha paraphrase of Hebrew Malachi 3:1, that is in turn joined with a paraphrase of Septuagint Isaiah." (Who wrote the Gospels, p. 8).

Mark has Jesus misquote the Decalogue in 10:19 where he invents a new commandment (do not defraud) that both Matthew and Luke silently omit from their Gospels. Mark's failure to check his sources as he has Jesus saying Abiathar was high priest in 2:25-26 when actually it was Ahimelech. No scholar of the Bible would let this slip into his Bible as both Matthew (12:23) and Luke (6:4) again correct Mark.

One more example is the reason Jesus spoke in parables.

10When he was alone, the Twelve and the others around him asked him about the parables. 11He told them, "The secret of the kingdom of God has been given to you. But to those on the outside everything is said in parables 12so that,
" 'they may be ever seeing but never perceiving,
and ever hearing but never understanding;
otherwise they might turn and be forgiven!'"

Mark doesn't seem aware that verse 12 is a paraphrase of Isaiah 6:9-10. Seeing Christianity as a mystery cult he took it at face that Jesus spoke in parables to ensure those on the outside would not turn and repent. Remember, here is the Gospel in which lies the Messianic Secret. As Helms wrote, "Had he known Isaiah chapter six and its context--as Matthew, using Mark as his source, clearly did--had he, like Matthew, checked the ultimate source of his source, Mark might have told this story in something like the way Matthew did..." (Who Wrote the Gospels, p. 11). Even the nihil obstat and imprimatur stamped NJBC (p. 656) concedes that “Matthew has clearly softened Mark . .�

Midrash requires detailed and critical exegetical skill. The author of Mark and his rough prose, poorly written Greek, geography errors, custom errors, custom explanations for his audience and clear scriptural ignorance possessed no such qualities. There is NO indication Mark would have known this reference and no indication that his audience would have understood such a reference. Solid lines of evidence in the Gospels suggest the opposite: neither would have understood such an oblique reference. Furthermore, since under the midrashic theory both Matthew and Luke engaged in extensive midrash as well, why do they both independently drop Mark's midrash of Amos 2:16.

This midrash objection was given by two internet posters. Spin merely references Amos 2:16 but Attonitus went further: "Price has a simple solution, and the only one I’ve seen that makes any sense." Obviously, as I have shown this solution makes no sense whatsoever. We see that this piece of tradition is very puzzling as scholars cannot come up with solutions that do make sense.

My solution, then, that this account comes from the fuller narrative in Secret Mark then, is all the more probable. Further, my exegesis on this passage cannot be claimed to be any poorer than that of other scholars. I would say mine is better since it stands where others fail.

It is quite humorous that spin can call my argument "crap" but who really has the "fuddy-duddy mentality" that he speaks of? Myself or spin and the other Amos 2:16 midrash exegetes who offer us nothing more than midrash themselves.
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Old 05-09-2004, 06:47 PM   #19
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Oh yeah, appendix three has select positive and negative comments.

Vinnie
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Old 05-09-2004, 07:10 PM   #20
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Vinnie
h. The naked young man is Mark signing his narrative.
I'm slow so forgive me, but where did that tradition come from? I've heard it before, but what are its origins? Anybody?
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