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10-04-2004, 06:51 PM | #131 | |
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I'm sure he meant that in the nicest possible way. |
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10-04-2004, 06:56 PM | #132 | |
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10-04-2004, 06:57 PM | #133 | |
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10-04-2004, 07:03 PM | #134 |
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Then it is true that nothing is true?
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10-04-2004, 07:04 PM | #135 | |
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10-04-2004, 07:08 PM | #136 |
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then it is true all statements are false including this one?
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10-04-2004, 07:19 PM | #137 | ||
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[QUOTE=ZooMom]
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To recap: If "goodness" or "badness" is within our capacity to judge through reason, and God has established the objective measures by which we judge good or bad, then we must use those objective measures in judging an action of God. If "Obedience = good, disobedience = bad" and God does not abide by the rules given to us to obey, the ones by which we determine the goodness or badness of an action, then we should be able to judge that God has done wrong. When you ask if "God be in opposition to His own Will?" you presume that His will must coincide with the rules He gave us to obey. But, God is certainly "able" to violate the rules He has given us, correct? Nobody gave those rules to Him, did they? So why would it be impossible to rationally judge an action of His to be wrong, were He under the same rules that we are? And as I said before: Quote:
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10-04-2004, 07:20 PM | #138 | |
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10-04-2004, 07:22 PM | #139 |
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Here's a tough one, then: Is beauty good?
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10-04-2004, 07:26 PM | #140 | |
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