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Old 08-31-2009, 02:53 PM   #381
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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
You're not a stranger to being in this this position. The "the" is clearly not there. All you have to do is look. You should be the first person to complain that someone is not being literal with a translation. Tacit admission of your last load of bunk. You were peddling a mixture of bad translation and irrelevance. Nothing new for you, is it?
Looks like Adolf Deissmann makes a lot more sense than run-on spin, who simply peddles "bunk, bad, peddle," etc. Better than most of his posts though.
Remember this, all you infidel, when all the protesting dies down, Steven Avery simply doesn't care what the original biblical text says.


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Old 08-31-2009, 04:43 PM   #382
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Adolf Deissmann, Light from the Ancient East (or via: amazon.co.uk) can be previewed on Google books

I don't see how the quote provided supports Steven Avery's position.
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Old 08-31-2009, 04:59 PM   #383
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Hi Folks,

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Originally Posted by Toto
Any evidence is more than no evidence.
Then New Testament agreements are clearly evidence, as is Josephus.

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Originally Posted by Toto
Surely we all realize that there was more than one person named Jacobus or James in Israel. Why should the Galilean James the brother of Jesus, son of a carpenter, be the same person as James the head of the Jerusalem Church? Is there an iota of evidence linking these two James?
The first iota of evidence is that they are both listed as the brother of Jesus in the context of Jesus of Nazareth. Much more than an iota.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
Josephus' reference to James the brother of Jesus I believe refers to a different Jesus. I think that "called Christ" is a later marginal note copied into the text.
For which you offer Toto-Evidence.

The problem, Toto, is that you do not understand concepts of evidence. You cannot take your own presumptions about the NT to pretend that it does not "count". And your Josephus theories are the RESULT of your Bible presuppositions only, hand-tailored.

Thus you can attempt to minimize the evidence .. say it is not much evidence to you ... (which makes us wonder why you even care about Paul's comments, a bit perplexing there).

However to handwave "no evidence" shows either that you are lacking in logic or full of presuppositional bias. Yet even if biased, if you worked with simple logic you would rightfully say something like "I don't see that evidence of the NT as conclusive, or even strong". That would be proper and fair dialog. Why is that so difficult for you ?

Shalom,
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Old 08-31-2009, 05:01 PM   #384
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Hi Folks,

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Quote:
Originally Posted by Steven Avery
Looks like Adolf Deissmann makes a lot more sense than run-on spin, who simply peddles "bunk, bad, peddle," etc. Better than most of his posts though.
Remember this, all you infidel, when all the protesting dies down, Steven Avery simply doesn't care what the original biblical text says.
spin, when you produce the "original biblical text" give a holla. If you are concerned that your unique translation theories are not accepted elsewhere, argue it out in the Journals.

Shalom,
Steven Avery
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Old 08-31-2009, 05:04 PM   #385
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Hi Folks,

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
Adolf Deissmann, Light from the Ancient East (or via: amazon.co.uk) can be previewed on Google books
I don't see how the quote provided supports Steven Avery's position.
What is "the quote". What is "Steven Avery's position". You are being a bit vague here.

Shalom,
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Old 08-31-2009, 05:41 PM   #386
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...

The first iota of evidence is that they are both listed as the brother of Jesus in the context of Jesus of Nazareth. Much more than an iota.
Not the brother of Jesus, but the brother of the Lord, by someone who has never been shown to use the word "brother" as meaning anything other than "fellow believer."

Quote:
....

The problem, Toto, is that you do not understand concepts of evidence. You cannot take your own presumptions about the NT to pretend that it does not "count". And your Josephus theories are the RESULT of your Bible presuppositions only, hand-tailored.
A bit of projection there?

Quote:
... Yet even if biased, if you worked with simple logic you would rightfully say something like "I don't see that evidence of the NT as conclusive, or even strong". . . .
OK - I don't see your claims of "evidence" from the NT to be worth the pixels they are written in.

If this were something resembling a court of law, the evidence would not be admissible.
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Old 08-31-2009, 05:45 PM   #387
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Hi Folks,

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
Adolf Deissmann, Light from the Ancient East (or via: amazon.co.uk) can be previewed on Google books
I don't see how the quote provided supports Steven Avery's position.
What is "the quote". What is "Steven Avery's position". You are being a bit vague here.

Shalom,
Steven Avery
See your post here.

Quote:
"Deissmann, in his Licht vom Osten, (Light from the Ancient East Or the New Testament Illustrated by Recently Discovered Texts of the Graeco Roman World - Adolph Deissman and Lionel Strachen 1910 p. 353-357) has revealed by linguistic study the exact significance of "Kyrios lesus." The invocation is a direct confession that Jesus is God. Only by grace of the Holy Spirit, says St. Paul, can any man arrive at conviction of that truth. He thus makes the use of the invocation a positive test of Christianity. He does not make the non-user of it a negative test, but St. John would apparently do so, and this accords with other indications of apostolic custom."

The one body and the one spirit a study in the unity of the church - Thomas Alxexander Lacey (1925)
What was your purpose in quoting this?
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Old 08-31-2009, 08:51 PM   #388
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I actually have no idea what I meant by object, but I have already clarified my point.
Your "no idea" clarifies your point well.


Referring to David the servant of Saul...

That, as is, makes no sense.

Look at 1 Sam 29:3:

david o doulos saoul

iakwbov o adelfov tou kuriou

[name] relation [name/noun]

Why isn't "James the brother of the lord" a direct grammatical analogy with "David the servant of Saul"?
I beleive it is analogous as long as it is referring to james, who is jesus brother. When you claim that 'brother of the Lord' is a name of a group, it is no longer a direct grammatical analogy.


These are analagous:

David, the servant of the Lord. David is the slave who belongs to the Lord.

James, the brother of the Lord. James is the brother or kinsmen of the Lord.


This is not:

James, the brother of the Lord. This means what? James is the sole member of a club. you cannot separate brothers in this case because it is part of the name of the group.

this is analagous to James, the book of the month club and makes no sense.


I would expect to see something similar to

Mark 15:43 autos emaqhteuqh tw ihsou - one of the disciples, or a disciple

or even

Matt 2:13 angelos kuriou - an angel of [the] Lord

one of the brothers of the Lord
a brother of the Lord
a member of the brothers of the Lord
but not The brother of the Lord which would be reserved to indicate the Lord's brother.

I am having a hard time beleiving you do not understand this. However, maybe I am just bad at explaining it to you. perhaps Toto can explain why it is awkward since she indicated as much.

http://www.freeratio.org/showpost.ph...&postcount=325

otherwise, I guess we will have to disagree and move on.

Quote:
I point out two distinct uses of the Greek kurios as already seen in Ps 110. I put aside the titular use and started to go through some of the examples of the absolute use, when you jumped me over your assertion that 1 Cor 9:1b must refer to Jesus.
actually, I did not insist it was referring to Jesus. I expect that it is.

I also belevie you set aside references that you should not have.

1 cor 6:14 o de qeoj kai ton kurion hgeiren kai hmaj exegerei dia thj dunamewj autou - Now God indeed raised the Lord and he will raise us by his power. The only Lord that was raised was jesus.

Rom 13:14 is referring to jesus ton kurion ihsoun xriston The Lord Jesus Christ

1 Cor 2:8 ton kurion thj doxhj The Lord of glory

1 Cor 2:16 noun kuriou oj sumbibasei auton hmeij de noun xristou
- mind of the Lord (quoting the OT) mind of Christ - same usage. Especially interesting because he is answering the question of who has the mind of The Lord with those who have the mind of Christ.

1 cor 4:5 elqh o kurios the Lord appears. I expect Paul is referring to Jesus in this passage.

1 Cor 7:22, the Lord is equivocated with Christ again.

1 Cor 9:14, o kurioj dietaxen toij to euangelion katangellousin ek tou euangeliou zhn. I do not recall this being commanded by any other Lord than Jesus. Perhaps you know otherwise.

1 Cor 11:23 tou kuriou o kai paredwka umin oti o kurioj ihsouj The Lord and the Lord Jesus both refenced in the same passage. Actually, this iopens up quite a few references to the Lord where ther Lord's supper is obviously referring to this event such as 1 Cor 11:20

1 cor 16:23, of the Lord jesus, 2 cor 13:13, the Lord Jesus, Phil 4:23, grace of the Lord Jesus,

2 tim 4:8, The Lord, his appearing, referring to Jesus

Quote:
You then tried the sorry christian apologetic based on Php 2:6, which I corrected for you, so you abandoned that
it is very clear that Phil 2 is assigning divinity to Christ.

not abandoned, it is just not necessary. we can discuss the divinity of Christ in Paul after this.

Quote:
The issue is not one of faith for you, why must you refuse to think about the issue logically?
You will have to explain what faith means in this context and in what way it is not an issue for me.
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Old 08-31-2009, 09:00 PM   #389
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The text that your translation has as "no man can say that Jesus is the Lord" says, oudeis dunatai eipein kurion ihsoun -- and that's TR. Yup, no article, no verb to be, just "no man can say lord Jesus".
Do you understand that in Greek the verb to be is often implied? (I think you do.) Also with names and titles, the article is sometimes present and sometimes not.
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Old 08-31-2009, 10:05 PM   #390
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Quote:
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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Remember this, all you infidel, when all the protesting dies down, Steven Avery simply doesn't care what the original biblical text says.
spin, when you produce the "original biblical text" give a holla. If you are concerned that your unique translation theories are not accepted elsewhere, argue it out in the Journals.
Typical deflection. You're position is like shifting sand. Any way the wind blows. You'll bleat about textual corruption, then show that you don't give a damn about textual corruption.


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