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Old 12-14-2008, 08:13 PM   #11
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So then the author first wrote Gjohn then wrote 1-3 john in that order, in response to some feedback he got from gjohn
A theory is that 1 John was written in response to some kind of feedback from gJohn.
2 and 3 John are letters in their own right, apparantly from a certain presbyter. I dunno if its possible to establish in what order 1-3 John were written.
Epistle of John has the famous verse about the anti-christs being those who deny jesus has come in the flesh. This has been understood as a swipe against doceticism, but MJ'ers of course claim this as support for their view.

If John's letters were written as a kind of feedback, I wonder if some denied a HJ in favor of MJ.
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Old 12-15-2008, 05:19 AM   #12
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Epistle of John has the famous verse about the anti-christs being those who deny jesus has come in the flesh. This has been understood as a swipe against doceticism, but MJ'ers of course claim this as support for their view.

If John's letters were written as a kind of feedback, I wonder if some denied a HJ in favor of MJ.
Yes, "the Word was made flesh" from gJohn was apparantly considered to be symbolic by docetics, and so 1 John seems to underline the view that Jesus' body was indeed flesh (for example 1 John 1:1, "our hands have touched")

As for a HJ or a MJ, depends on how you define MJ, I guess. If docetics believed there had been a Jesus, but that he had been merely an illusion, would that be a MJ or a HJ to them?
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Old 12-15-2008, 07:20 AM   #13
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I have a link on my Johannine epistles page to an intriguing article by Robert M. Price on 3 John. He proposes that the three epistles were written in the reverse of their canonical order.

The article is short, and is an interesting read.

Ben.
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Old 12-15-2008, 09:47 PM   #14
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I have a link on my Johannine epistles page to an intriguing article by Robert M. Price on 3 John. He proposes that the three epistles were written in the reverse of their canonical order.

The article is short, and is an interesting read.

Ben.
thanks
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