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Old 05-02-2008, 06:01 AM   #121
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Please you two, which passage in Matthew? Which on in Zechariah? Which one in Mark?
Mark 11:1-11, Matthew 21:1-11 and Zech 9?

Matt and Mark have one animal each and two disciples.
Mt 21:2 ass & colt
Mt 21:3 bring them
Mt 21:5 mounted on an ass and on a colt
Mt 21:7 ass and colt... sat him upon them

Mk 11:3 colt
Mk 11:4 colt... loosed it
Mk 11:5 loosing colt
Mk 11:7 colt... sat him upon it

Zech 9:9 king... riding on an ass and on a colt


spin

Doesn't Zech say, the colt of a donkey, or something to that effect?
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Old 05-02-2008, 06:59 AM   #122
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Mt 21:2 ass & colt
Mt 21:3 bring them
Mt 21:5 mounted on an ass and on a colt
Mt 21:7 ass and colt... sat him upon them

Mk 11:3 colt
Mk 11:4 colt... loosed it
Mk 11:5 loosing colt
Mk 11:7 colt... sat him upon it

Zech 9:9 king... riding on an ass and on a colt
Doesn't Zech say, the colt of a donkey, or something to that effect?
Zechariah is using a standard technique in Hebrew poetry in which the same thing is referred to in parallel. Hebrew has very few conjunctions, so they overuse the Hebrew equivalent to "and", so yes it does say "on an ass and on a colt...", but it doesn't mean what we might understand. It's just giving different angles of the one reference.


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Old 05-02-2008, 07:06 AM   #123
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Hi Malachi

Could you say briefly why you think Mark invented the entire narrative himself ? At face value I don't think it plausible. IIUC there are at least some elements tht you believe Mark got from an earlier source ie Paul eg that Jesus was crucified and presumably that Jesus opposed divorce etc. It seems unlikely that Paul was the only previous source for Mark and some parts of Mark's story, eg that Jesus was a Galilean wonder worker, seem IMO pre-Markan in the sense that Mark seems to be rewriting these stories in order to emphasize his own view of Jesus as suffering servant.

Andrew Criddle
Because the entire story is cohesive, has a complex narrative, uses the same types of literary allusions throughout, builds on distinctive patterns and shows a consistent style from beginning to end.

To use the Mark Twain reference again, its like asking why you would think that The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn was the product of a single author who created the narrative himself.

The reason to think that is because the narrative is cohesive and builds upon itself, which each of the scenes containing symbolism that has relevance throughout the narrative such that it is not likely that the narrative is simply a strung together collection of anecdotes.

This is even stronger in the Gospel of Mark because not only do you have a cohesive and complex narrative that fits together from beginning to end and builds upon itself, but you also have a pattern of literary allusion.

The same types of literary allusions are used throughout the work from beginning to end. The allusions are drawn from a relatively small collection of scriptural sources.

Also take some specific examples. Again, the cursing of the fig tree and the disruption at the temple.

I'm saying that this scene is directly based on Hosea 9.

If its based on Hosea 9 then its obviously not an anecdote that the author is writing down from a secondary source.

Furthermore, the reference itself fits into a larger pattern, so even the idea that it could be a third party anecdote that was itself based on a literary reference doesn't make sense, plus the language is too close to the scripture so the author would have to have been working directly from the scripture itself, not a second hand account.

My view is that the Gospel of Mark has a singular cohesive underlying theme, and this can only be accounted for by a story that was developed in the mind of a single person who crafted all of these elements in a purposeful manner.

My view is that its an allegorical story about the destruction of Jerusalem, and the symbolism and literary allusions is too complex and well fitted together for it to be a random collection of second hand accounts and traditions.
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Doesn't Zech say, the colt of a donkey, or something to that effect?
Zechariah is using a standard technique in Hebrew poetry in which the same thing is referred to in parallel. Hebrew has very few conjunctions, so they overuse the Hebrew equivalent to "and", so yes it does say "on an ass and on a colt...", but it doesn't mean what we might understand. It's just giving different angles of the one reference.


spin
If I understand you correctly, it's the way I always read it. As a clarification; that the king would ride on a donkey, but not just a donkey, in fact he would ride on the colt of a donkey.

Which, in my mind at least, is one reason why I never bought into the fact that Mat was a Jew....but whatever...
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Old 05-02-2008, 07:19 AM   #124
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Just noticed I hadn't sent this...
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I don't see any evidence that the Marcan writer had an Aramaic background. He was writing in Greek for a Roman audience and the only Aramaic influence was through phrases of mainly insignificant value. Was there no statement more momentous than talitha kumi?? His Jesus was fundamentally a Greek speaker.
Actually, I find, Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani somewhat more momentous but that's beside the point.
(And it's of little value when it is a stock phrase from some psalms targum.)

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I am not arguing that Mark had Aramaic background. It may very well be that he never heard bar enash but already received it as ho huios tou anthropou which he might have found confusing because the LXX usage ,and Daniel 7:13 specifically, was dropping the article.
Neither article was there in the first place, given that both the OG and Theodotion give uois anQropou. That should suggest that a Greek translation was not the source. The trajectory is still obscure to me.


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More importantly: when the saying was translated into Greek, the idiomatic contexts were missing and the Paulinist Greek speakers might have thought the translated circumlocutions of son of man with apocalyptic content signified Jesus (HJ) had messianic self-consciousness a la Paul.
(I think Theodotion and the OG show how it was understood by Greek translators.)
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Old 05-02-2008, 07:40 AM   #125
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If I understand you correctly, it's the way I always read it. As a clarification; that the king would ride on a donkey, but not just a donkey, in fact he would ride on the colt of a donkey.
I think you've got it. Others, look at Num 23:19,
God is not a man, that he should lie, and not the son of man, that he should repent.
or Prov 5:5
Her feet go down to death; Her steps take hold on Sheol;
or Ps 20:2
Send thee help from the sanctuary, And strengthen thee out of Zion;
These are just a few examples of the very frequent poetic device of parallelism. In each case the same basic thing is being said two ways. It's usually joined by the Hebrew "and", though the second example isn't.


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Old 05-02-2008, 07:47 AM   #126
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Doesn't Zech say, the colt of a donkey, or something to that effect?
Zechariah is using a standard technique in Hebrew poetry in which the same thing is referred to in parallel. Hebrew has very few conjunctions, so they overuse the Hebrew equivalent to "and", so yes it does say "on an ass and on a colt...", but it doesn't mean what we might understand. It's just giving different angles of the one reference.


spin
So is what we are seeing in Matt 21 a doublet or a pleonasm?
Jesus Christ! I Just reread Matthew and it says Jesus sat on them? What were the translators thinking? What is that supposed to mean?

Anyways spin, whats the answer to what you are asking Malachi?
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Old 05-02-2008, 08:01 AM   #127
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Zechariah is using a standard technique in Hebrew poetry in which the same thing is referred to in parallel. Hebrew has very few conjunctions, so they overuse the Hebrew equivalent to "and", so yes it does say "on an ass and on a colt...", but it doesn't mean what we might understand. It's just giving different angles of the one reference.


spin
So is what we are seeing in Matt 21 a doublet or a pleonasm?
Jesus Christ! I Just reread Matthew and it says Jesus sat on them? What were the translators thinking? What is that supposed to mean?

Anyways spin, whats the answer to what you are asking Malachi?
He obviously "corrected" Mk to reflect what he "knew" the text said, ie we can see he believed the veracity of the text of Zechariah and its ability to represent how things must have been despite the fact that he didn't understand the Hebrew poetic device that makes him erroneously add a second animal. Why else make the change? (This is one of those "dig it?" moments.)


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Old 05-02-2008, 08:04 AM   #128
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The words "son of man" are found extensively in the book called Ezekiel, where this so-called prophet used the words "son of man" over 90 times, exceeding by a far margin, the use of the words "son of man" in the entire Synoptics.

The author of gMark appears to have used the OT to come up with the words "son of man".

The infamous so-called blasphemous words of Jesus in gMark 14.62 may have been a combination of Pslams 80.17 and Daniel 7.13.

Mark 14.62
Quote:
And Jesus said, I am, and ye shall see the son of man sitting on the right hand of the power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.
Psalms 80.17
Quote:
Let thy hand be upon the man of thy right hand upon the son of man whom thou madest strong for thyself.
Daniel 7.13
Quote:
I saw in the night visions, and behold one like the son of man came with the clouds of heaven and came to the Ancient of days......
And, it must be remembered that all the words in gMark are from the author or the interpolators, writing at least 30-40 years after the supposed events.
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Old 05-02-2008, 08:14 AM   #129
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So is what we are seeing in Matt 21 a doublet or a pleonasm?
Jesus Christ! I Just reread Matthew and it says Jesus sat on them? What were the translators thinking? What is that supposed to mean?

Anyways spin, whats the answer to what you are asking Malachi?
He obviously "corrected" Mk to reflect what he "knew" the text said, ie we can see he believed the veracity of the text of Zechariah and its ability to represent how things must have been despite the fact that he didn't understand the Hebrew poetic device that makes him erroneously add a second animal. Why else make the change? (This is one of those "dig it?" moments.)


spin
Spin, doesn't this little tid bit kinda make you wonder if Mat could even read Hebrew at all?
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Old 05-02-2008, 08:19 AM   #130
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On second thought, maybe Mat was trying to actually source it from the Hebrew, but it was not his first language.
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