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Old 08-23-2008, 07:44 AM   #1021
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of that earthquake and the zombies there is just one account.
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we have one reliable account.
Your dogma says it's reliable. The evidence does not.
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Old 08-23-2008, 01:47 PM   #1022
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I just shopwed you that in Luke 24:4, he referred to men and then twenty verses later made it quite clear that those men were Angels. I know you realize that.
First Luke tells us that the women saw two young men. Then he reports what the women say about it; that they had a vision of angels. Can we take it from this that they saw actual angels? Can we draw from Luke's account that: [young man in white == vision of angel == actual angel] ?

I have my doubts. Maybe what we see here is the development of a myth; a feather becoming five chickens. Or are we perhaps looking at Luke trying to take the middle ground between Mark and Matthew? Or is it the case -as you are claiming ?- that whenever someone writes "young man in white" it is to be read as "angel"?

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Here is the answer to your question. Angels are Spirits and you cannot see them. Men are a form that they apparently take for the sake of performing some task chosen by God. In the case in question, they took on the form of men with very dazzingly white robes. No lie, I beleive this to be true.

~Steve
I hope that's not the answer to the question I am repeating below, because then it is not clear to me what you would say:

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Let us for the sake of the argument suppose that you have seen an angel whose appearance was like lightning. How would you justify telling people that you saw a young man? Can you think of any way it would not be a lie?
Would you tell people "I have seen a young man in white"?
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Old 08-23-2008, 02:02 PM   #1023
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Again, of that earthquake and the zombies there is just one account. Events of that magnitude could and should have been mentioned by several of them. Matthew is not even supported by his fellow evangelists, let alone by neutral or indifferent observers like Josephus, Pliny, Philo, or Tacitus. Hostile or unreliable accounts could have mentioned it for their own purposes or to support their own whacky theories. There is nothing.
Again, we have one reliable account. That is all that is necessary to establish it as fact.
Whether or not Matthew's account is reliable is precisely what is being questioned. It does not help to simply assert that it is. You need to bring forward reasons and evidence to support your case.
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Old 08-23-2008, 08:07 PM   #1024
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Again, we have one reliable account. That is all that is necessary to establish it as fact.
Whether or not Matthew's account is reliable is precisely what is being questioned. It does not help to simply assert that it is. You need to bring forward reasons and evidence to support your case.
I think this thread was started in response to Barker's challenge. I think it has already been demonstrated to have been answered by others. As far as Matthew not being accurate because he is the only on to mention an event, I think that is irrelevant. The reasons I think it is accurate have been given many times before by conservative scholars and some of them have been given during this thread I think. Anyway if you want to continue to believe that Barker's challenge has not been met, that is up to you. If you want to believe Matthew is inaccurate because he mentions events that others don't, that again is your choice. Good bye for now.
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Old 08-23-2008, 08:12 PM   #1025
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You make no sense. I'm just relating how Luke describes the two men and noting that Steve has apparently not read the story since it clearly does involve glowing garments.
Oh, it makes sense. You just are too ignorant about angels to understand. Actually, I am afraid you just don't want to understand.
Now you're just being childish. The text about shining garments is quite plain. If you think you know something relevant that might change that, then spit it out.

Otherwise, you're just pretending to know something and trying to play "guess my secret" when there really isn't any secret knowledge to be guessed.
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Old 08-23-2008, 08:20 PM   #1026
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Whether or not Matthew's account is reliable is precisely what is being questioned. It does not help to simply assert that it is. You need to bring forward reasons and evidence to support your case.
I think this thread was started in response to Barker's challenge. I think it has already been demonstrated to have been answered by others.
If you think that, then it's because you decided to blind yourself to the contrary evidence.

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As far as Matthew not being accurate because he is the only on to mention an event, I think that is irrelevant.
Then you "think" incorrectly.

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The reasons I think it is accurate have been given many times before by conservative scholars and some of them have been given during this thread I think.
Too bad none of those "reasons" stood up very well under close inspection and cross-examination.

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Anyway if you want to continue to believe that Barker's challenge has not been met, that is up to you.
That's what the evidence in this thread says - it has nothing to do with "belief".

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If you want to believe Matthew is inaccurate because he mentions events that others don't, that again is your choice. Good bye for now.
The evidence says that you don't want to do the hard work of investigating this on your own. You prefer to piggyback on other people like some kind of cheerleader and borrow their arguments because you don't have any of your own to give. And now that the squeeze is being put on you to put up or shut up, you've resorted to sticking your fingers in your ears as a debate defense. You're leaving this thread because you're backed into a corner and you're afraid of getting pinned down - so before that happens, you need to make your exit.

Typical bible literalist - when they finally are forced to support their claims, suddenly they hear their mother calling / have to walk the dog / "Oh my, is that the time? Gotta go".
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Old 08-23-2008, 09:08 PM   #1027
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Also, I would appreciate that when quoting me, you do not add to the quote. You have made it appear that I added [gMatthew] defining the it. It is obvious from my original post that I was referring to the Septuagint. Please do not attribute to me by adding quotes and then alter the quote. That is COMPLETELY INAPPROPRIATE.

~Steve
I was responding to your posts about gMatthew.

This is what you posted on gMatthew.



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.... I did not say Matthew wrote in hebrew. I said he wrote to Hebrews. He wrote it in Greek...
You seem to be confused and cannot remember what you have posted, or maybe you don't want to.
No, you are playing a game and purposefully derailing any progression to the conversation. I've seen you do it in other threads as well. Don't do it to me.

I posted http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showthr...34#post5515434 which states that the Septuagint was translated into Greek.

You altered my quote here http://iidb.infidels.org/vbb/showthr...25#post5516425 and changed the meaning of what I said and then declared that I am confused. You are intentionally being mis-leading.
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Old 08-23-2008, 09:33 PM   #1028
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I just shopwed you that in Luke 24:4, he referred to men and then twenty verses later made it quite clear that those men were Angels. I know you realize that.
First Luke tells us that the women saw two young men. Then he reports what the women say about it; that they had a vision of angels. Can we take it from this that they saw actual angels? Can we draw from Luke's account that: [young man in white == vision of angel == actual angel] ?

I have my doubts. Maybe what we see here is the development of a myth; a feather becoming five chickens. Or are we perhaps looking at Luke trying to take the middle ground between Mark and Matthew? Or is it the case -as you are claiming ?- that whenever someone writes "young man in white" it is to be read as "angel"?



I hope that's not the answer to the question I am repeating below, because then it is not clear to me what you would say:

Quote:
Me:
Let us for the sake of the argument suppose that you have seen an angel whose appearance was like lightning. How would you justify telling people that you saw a young man? Can you think of any way it would not be a lie?
Would you tell people "I have seen a young man in white"?
A progression of a myth does not happen 4 sentences later in the same chapter of the same book. Luke was obviously referring to Angels in Luke 24:4 because he said that is what the men were in Luke 24:23. If you are allegating that the progression of the myth is from later authors then the progression would have replaced the men with angels. It did not.

Obviously, all young men are not Angels but there are some clues about these specific young men.

According to Matthew, they descended from heaven, wore shining white clothes.

According to Mark, , he was wearing white clothes, but he does not specifically say they are dingy white clothes. So, it does not contradict with shining white clothes.

According to Luke, they shone like lightning, and wore white clothes. Again, no contradiction.

Matthew refers to the men as Angels, writing to a Jewish audience the language he selected makes perfect sense.

Mark described a young man, obviously inferring a supernatural presence indicating that a young man in a white robe, sitting at a tomb of a resurrected man, and providing instructions from God. These are things a messenger from God does, not some guy who stumbled into the tomb after a toga party.

Luke provides us with the best bridge between the two making it very clear that it is quite normal to refer to Angels as men and also referring to those specific men as Angels in verse 23.

Matthew confirms they are Angels, Luke confirms they are Angels but also confirms that Angels are referred to as men because they take the form of men, Mark's young men are the same Angels as Martthew's.

So, when you see a man in shining white robes in relationship to and in support of a supernatural act of God, then yes, it is socially acceptable to refer to that Angel as a man as long as you include the fact that there was a supernatural event.
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Old 08-23-2008, 10:45 PM   #1029
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According to Matthew, they descended from heaven, wore shining white clothes.
You are confused or trying to create confusion. Matthew only refers to one angel and it is his face, not his clothes, that shines like lightning.

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According to Mark, , he was wearing white clothes, but he does not specifically say they are dingy white clothes. So, it does not contradict with shining white clothes.
He just says the young man's clothes are white and that does not agree with the other two who explicitly describe the figure(s) the women encounter as somehow shining.

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According to Luke, they shone like lightning, and wore white clothes. Again, no contradiction.
A young man wearing white is not the same as an angel or a man who somehow shines. Since the figure described is clearly supposed to be the same figure (ie who the women met at the tomb) that is a contradiction.

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...a young man in a white robe, sitting at a tomb of a resurrected man, and providing instructions from God.
Setting aside the false addition of the last phrase, we have already seen that none of Mark's depiction requires or even suggests that the young man is somehow supernatural. To continue to claim this despite having no basis in the text is simply disingenuous on your part.
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Old 08-23-2008, 10:52 PM   #1030
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According to Matthew, they descended from heaven, wore shining white clothes.
You might be confused here, because Matthew only describes one angel.

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According to Mark, , he was wearing white clothes, but he does not specifically say they are dingy white clothes. So, it does not contradict with shining white clothes.
I think you have this backwards. Since Mark wrote his gospel first, the original version is that the single young man's robes were white--nothing supernatural about them. It's Luke who both doubles the number of men on the scene and embellishes their robes to make them shining.

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According to Luke, they shone like lightning, and wore white clothes. Again, no contradiction.
Except in Matthew and Mark, there is no 'they,' and Luke embellishes their robes. Unless you think Matthew, Mark, and Luke wrote in collusion with one another, in which case your "number of independent sources" is reduced by two. The three Synoptic gospels must now be counted as a single source, and a shaky one at that.

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Matthew refers to the men as Angels, writing to a Jewish audience the language he selected makes perfect sense.
Again, it was one individual angel in Matthew.

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Mark described a young man, obviously inferring a supernatural presence indicating that a young man in a white robe, sitting at a tomb of a resurrected man, and providing instructions from God. These are things a messenger from God does, not some guy who stumbled into the tomb after a toga party.
Your snide humor aside, I still can't understand how a young man putting on a white robe, sitting in an opened tomb and repeating a set of instructions is a supernatural act. Yes, angels can do all that, but doing all that isn't angelic. Just like (according to the Bible) angels can sing, but singing isn't something that only angels can do. Descending from the sky, causing rock-splitting earthquakes, wearing lightning-bright clothes--all of those are beyond mortal means (in first-century Palestine.)

And if delivering a message from God is angelic, then Noah, Moses, and every prophet in the Old Testament was really an angel. Are you prepared to defend that? Are you now saying that John the Baptist was really an angel who was beheaded?

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So when you see a man in shining white robes in relationship to and in support of a supernatural act of God, then yes, it is socially acceptable to refer to that Angel as a man as long as you include the fact that there was a supernatural event.
Good to know.
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