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02-06-2006, 09:30 PM | #31 | |
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I just saw that Matthew 1:18 actually relates the meaning of Jesus' name with his role as Savior. I hadn't seen that before. Interesting. Luke, Mark, and John say nothing of it. The question is whether the author of Matthew was just looking for a connection or whether that reflects the belief of people at the time Jesus was born. If only the former, then "God is salvation" is not particularly appropriate IMO. ted |
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02-06-2006, 09:40 PM | #32 |
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Greetings all,
One minor issue that has always interested me is the connection between Iesous and * Iaso (daughter of Asclepius) and/or * Iasius Iaso was a healing deity, some sources give Ieso as an Ionian variant (the root meaning "to heal", correct?) Iasius was a minor god - born of virgin Elektra, son of God, founder of the mysteries, killed and later rose to heaven. Iasius thus pre-figures some of the Iesous story, and has a similar name that means "healer" (one of Jesus' strengths.) The Iaso/Iasius connection is much vaunted in New Age circles - not so well regarded among scholars it seems. I've mentioned it before - GakuseiDon pointed out the connection is not very close, little response otherwise. But, I wonder has this possible connection been studied? Do any experts here think it merits a closer look? Iasion |
02-06-2006, 10:33 PM | #33 |
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If I'm not mistaken, I do believe that Barabbas means "Son of the Father," which makes perfect symbolic sense since Pilate has to choose between releasing a "son of the father" or THE "Son of the Father."
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02-07-2006, 04:59 AM | #34 | |
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02-07-2006, 05:02 AM | #35 | |
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02-07-2006, 05:13 AM | #36 | |
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02-07-2006, 05:36 AM | #37 | |
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02-07-2006, 08:56 AM | #38 | |
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I'm also thinking of OT examples such as Sodom meaning "scorched" and Ai meaning "ruin." |
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02-07-2006, 09:22 AM | #39 | |||||||||
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Therefore, any effort to measure the "chance likelihood" of the name "Jesus" appearing in the story is completely irrelevant to differentiating between the above two possibilities! Quote:
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02-07-2006, 12:21 PM | #40 | |
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Calling all math teachers.....need some help here..
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Back to my example: Assumption: 1 in 10 people in a typical sample had a messianic name 2000 years ago. If the person considered to be the messiah had a messianic name, then the chances are 90% that a given person would NOT have a messianic name. Claim #1: Author deliberately fabricated the name of a mythical person to have a messianic meaning Since the odds are only 10% that an author would randomly choose a messianic name for his messianic character, we can conclude that the chances were 90% that he deliberately chose the name for its meaning as opposed to randomly, assuming he made up the name. Claim #2: Given a historical messianic figure existed, his name would have been messianic. The odds are only 10% of this if one assumes that a person's name doesn't influence his behavior. I"ve granted that it well could. So, the question ISN'T whether his parents deliberately named him Jesus. It is whether his name influenced his behavior to behave as a messiah. It depends on how influential a name was on average. ON AVERAGE IS IMPORTANT! On average, if we assume that people with a messianic name were TWICE as likely to behave like a messiah, then we have not a 10% chance, but a 20% chance that a person chosen out of a hat would behave like a messiah. SO, the odds would greatly an author deliberately choosing a name having a messianic meaning (90%) as compared to a person deliberately behaving like a messiah AND also having a messianic name (20%). What you apparantly are saying is that since we don't know what all the factors are for a particular person to behave a certain way, the probabilities that apply to an AVERAGE person are of no value..meaningless. I say that the underlying assumption of probability calculations is exactly to determine what odds are on AVERAGE in the absence of the missing information. This helps us calculate the odds of random chance vs deliberate behavior by the average person. To deny the value of that simply doesn't recognize the fact that one can ALWAYS point to not having enough information whenever the desired knowledge is missing. That's why statistics are used. Whether you know it or not, that's what you are doing whenever you conclude something about these kinds of issues---IF a work says "humble servant" it doesn't prove that that is exactly what it means. Rather, you do a mental calculation that the ODDS are that people say what they mean, whereas sometimes they really don't. If three secular sources say the exact same thing, it doesn't prove that it happened either. Rather, we do a mental calculation to conclude that the odds are high that it happened. Probability is ALWAYS used whether you know it or not. ted |
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